2006-07-19 23:46:41 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Other - Politics & Government
All you need to know can be found by reading about the Balfour Declaration.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Balfour_Declaration%2C_1917
Keep in mind, Palestine was owned by Britain as part of a mandate by the League of Nations, hence it's previous name; "British Mandate of Palestine".
2006-07-19 23:56:47 · answer #1 · answered by Kookiemon 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
When did the Palestine become a nation?
2006-07-20 06:52:29 · answer #2 · answered by Bear Naked 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because of historical reasons. The Jews always fought with the palestinians before. It says so in the bible
2006-07-20 06:50:31 · answer #3 · answered by Flordeluna A 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You might as wel ask why Arab land owners let them. Let us not forget that before the Second World War there were already Arab riots because of Jews buying Arab land, but they conveniently forgot it was rich Arab landowners that were selling it.
This little bit of info only to show you that it is impossible to give one short and easy answer to a complex historical question.
2006-07-20 06:51:28 · answer #4 · answered by Gungnir 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Why did the Palestinians take over Judea a couple thousand years ago?
2006-07-20 06:49:39 · answer #5 · answered by net_at_nite 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the way how Syrians have taken over Lebanon
2006-07-20 06:54:06 · answer #6 · answered by BHANU V. RAVAL 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
mean jews ivading lebanon also!!
hell to them!
2006-07-20 06:50:26 · answer #7 · answered by nice guy 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
they did not... these areas were part of Israel even before JESUS' times..
2006-07-20 07:00:01 · answer #8 · answered by zurg!!!! ahhhrrrrrggggghhhh 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋