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Applicant #1: Has a degree but never worked in the field,and meets none of the requirements for the position?

OR

Applicant #2 has been in the field (without college) for 10 years and meets all requirements except for the College Degree.

If the Applicant #2 isn't hired...would that be a discrimination against that person?

2006-07-19 16:28:30 · 9 answers · asked by Gothic Martha™ 6 in Business & Finance Careers & Employment

Umm....this is a hypothetical question. I did not say this actually happened. I am looking for legal and personal opinions. Not to make accusations. Thanks.

2006-07-19 16:54:34 · update #1

9 answers

I don't think it would be a discrimination against Applicant 2, but I do believe that the company in question would be getting the shorter end of the stick.

If a company can't see past the presence of a degree to the matter of experience, then they'll be losing out on a skilled applicant pool.

Luckily for Applicant 2, a lot of companies appreciate experience over degree.

2006-07-19 16:34:09 · answer #1 · answered by Pendergast 2 · 3 2

It is only considered discrimination if they person is not hired because of race, creed (religion), or culture.

If a college degree is part of the requirements for the job, then that person can be passed over for that specific reason alone, and it is not discriminatory.

2006-07-19 23:35:22 · answer #2 · answered by Oblivia 5 · 0 0

That's stupid. Stop trying to find an accusation to make.

Sometimes, we just don't get the jobs we want. Learn to live with it. Instead of trying to blame someone, try to learn what you can do to make you a more attractive candidate for a similar job in the future. Perhaps the degree would help. Or, perhaps you need to get that chip off your shoulder. But, if you're always thinking about suing your employer, rather than trying to find a way to EARN the chance to move up, you're never going to find yourself in a positive work relationship.

2006-07-19 23:46:46 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

What makes applicant one more favorable is their ability to improve themselves through education, and their ability to follow through (i.e. finish college). Applicant 2 has the experience, but lacks the education. Now, what the manager of applicant 2 may think is that app. 2 has become complacent by not taking advantage of earning any type of advanced education after 10 years of employment. This, whether true or not, makes applicant 2 appear complacent. Therefore, applicant 2 needs to begin taking college courses, advanced training of some sort, to show the initiative is there to improve him/herself.

2006-07-19 23:37:11 · answer #4 · answered by adjoadjo 6 · 0 0

It wouldn't be considered discrimination if the job posting specified a college degree as a requirement. Would it be fair? Probably not. But would it be discrimination? Nah.

2006-07-19 23:34:11 · answer #5 · answered by southernserendipiti 6 · 0 0

Not necessarily. Hiring is always a package deal. I use to do hiring for a multi-million dollar coorporation & I would look at the whole package that was presented (colleges do much the same in admissions).

"Delight yourself in the Lord & he will give you the desires of your heart." -Psalm 37:4

2006-07-19 23:33:04 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

no, sometimes certain company policies in regards to titles require certain levels of education. depending on the company, they might factor in experience before education. many large companies don't actually even consider candidates without the minimum requried education for that particular position.

2006-07-19 23:33:11 · answer #7 · answered by dzr0001 5 · 0 0

They can hire who they want. No one owes anyone a job. Buck stops there.

2006-07-19 23:32:05 · answer #8 · answered by OhIdonno 3 · 0 0

Its not discrimination unless they are not hired due to race color age or creed. Now...who to choose......which one's butt is cuter???

2006-07-19 23:33:09 · answer #9 · answered by Sassafrass 4 · 0 0

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