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2006-07-19 12:11:49 · 6 answers · asked by Curious_Cat 1 in Social Science Anthropology

6 answers

No one yet agrees on when language was first used by humans (or their ancestors). Estimates range from about two million (2,000,000) years ago, during the time of Homo habilis, to as recently as forty thousand (40,000) years ago, during the time of Cro-Magnon man.

The world's languages have been grouped into families of languages that are believed to have common ancestors. Some of the major families are the Indo-European languages, the Afro-Asiatic languages, the Austronesian languages, and the Sino-Tibetan languages.

The shared features of languages from one family can be due to shared ancestry. (Compare with homology in biology.)

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Language

2006-07-19 12:30:20 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

The now-obsolete science of philology tried to trace languages back to an original common language. I think there's still a group called the Language One Project that is trying to find the first language that all the other languages came from. They haven't been successful. Languages are usually in families, but some languages don't fit in any current families and they can't be related to some dead language way back in history. There just aren't good enough records to determine exactly where some languages came from, so there's no way to determine how they are related to other languages.

I wouldn't totally rule out the idea because there's no proof one way or the other about a Language One. But at the current time, with our current knowledge of language, no, all world languages aren't related. If anybody finds proof otherwise, I'd love to hear it, but I doubt anyone will.

2006-07-19 12:20:47 · answer #2 · answered by SlowClap 6 · 0 0

unfortunately no, they would be much easier to learn them if they were(this is not a reason why they are not all related)
there has been a lot of cross fertilization so words are not enough to differentiate or link languages. The more basic level is the grammar. the word order in sentences and the structure of the sentences tell a lot about the origin of a language, and about the thought patterns underlying it. Language appears to have started in a few isolated areas around the world independently of each other.

2006-07-19 12:20:43 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

NO but some of them r related to each other,all languages in europe such as french,deutsch.etc actuelly got their main roots from latin so does english ..so they have lots of words in common,but it isnt enough,the grammer is totally different.comparing between french &english{french is harder :P}there are some tenses are in common {just names}but the structure is totally different ,all middle east languages like arabic have no roots from any where else but their countries,suadi arabia was the country were ppl first spoke arabic and then they spread it to the arabic countries which exist now,aisain languages like japanease,korean have also no roots from any where else but their countries.but due to relations between them,they have got some things in common,in south africa each tripe has its own language or its own way of communication ,some of them speak french,thats all wht i know,i hope my answer have been helpful to you:),im not sure its 100% right :D:D:D

2006-07-19 13:10:36 · answer #4 · answered by thevisionsgirl 1 · 0 0

Believe it or not only English speaking people understand each other. For instance in China, One person chatters on, the other person has no idea what he meant. To show his displeasure he chatters back

2006-07-19 12:17:09 · answer #5 · answered by da_hammerhead 3 · 0 0

NO

2006-07-19 12:14:34 · answer #6 · answered by somebody else 3 · 0 0

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