If a person is drunk and exhibits a common behaviour that is found in many people under the influence of alcohol, then is "dry" for a period of time and experiences normal human mood fluxuations, why does Alcoholics Anonymous say he is on a "dry drunk"? Seems to me like it is a no win situation within the AA doctrine. What is going on here and is it healthy to make such comments to people trying to abstain from alcohol and other drugs?
2006-07-19
10:43:18
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6 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Social Science
➔ Psychology