True, if f' is continuous and differentiable at a. But it need not be.
2006-07-19 09:53:39
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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False for the value of 0, I think that f'(a) does have to exist though
for example:
f''(x)=x^2+1
min @x=0
f'(x)=(1/3)x^3+x+b
f'(0)=0+0+b not 0 except if b=0
2006-07-19 16:43:44
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answer #2
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answered by cj k 4
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Are you sure you are asking that correctly? I think the question should be be in regards to f(a) (the function) and not f''(x) (the second derivative).
If the question is about f(x) and f(x) is at a minimum at f(a) (absolute or local for that matter), then the slope of f(a) -- i.e. a line drawn tangent to the curve at a will be flat, correct?
Well, the first derivative of a function IS the slope of that tangent line at a given point, so therefore the f'(a) would be zero because that line at any minima or maxima is flat.
2006-07-19 16:44:35
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answer #3
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answered by kevinngunn 3
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no
it just means that the value of f' at a is the steepest possible slope of the graph
2006-07-19 16:41:30
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answer #4
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answered by marishka 5
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You don't really expect any honest answer for this do you lol
2006-07-19 16:39:12
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answer #5
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answered by miss_gem_01 6
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