2006-07-19 08:07:30 · 7 answers · asked by LeBlanc 6 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Other - Arts & Humanities
Good question... Yes... it's certainly at least one form of genocide.
2006-07-19 08:11:07 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Possibly, but not necessarily. A war is only genocide if one side is fighting for the explicit purpose of wiping out a racia or political group. America's wars, for example, are not genocide, but many African tribal wars are.
2006-07-19 15:13:31 · answer #2 · answered by evan s 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think genocide is a form of war.
You can't have genocide without a war but you can have war without a genocide. (for example, in a civil war both sides have the same genealogy)
2006-07-19 15:11:33 · answer #3 · answered by Tamborine 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no. genocide is political movement to eliminate people of an area or ,in the case of the Nazis, of a group. this may depend on the war.
2006-07-19 15:11:00 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
A genocide is a mass killing of people - so by that definition (in my opinion), I don't think so... wars are not for the sole purpose of killing the masses.
2006-07-19 15:11:13 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I believe it is.
2006-07-19 15:10:46 · answer #6 · answered by Bree 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes. always.
2006-07-20 04:32:53 · answer #7 · answered by ♫Pavic♫ 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋