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The alkali metals (group 1) tend to form 1+ ions while alkali earth metals (group 2) tend to form 2+ ions because:
a. alkali metals are less massive
b. this is a random occurence
c. the changes of these ions corresponds to the number of valence electrons that may be lost
d. the ion an atom forms is always equal to the group number

only answer if you know for sure

2006-07-19 06:32:24 · 5 answers · asked by statistics graduate 1 in Science & Mathematics Physics

5 answers

C, and this is chemistry. Atoms in these groups have extra electron(s) in their outer shell. All atoms want to have a full valence shell, (or empty depending on how you look at it), so if these want to get rid of the extra electrons they have.

2006-07-19 06:36:48 · answer #1 · answered by M 4 · 1 0

C is more appropriate.

Every element in a group has the tendancy to form ions. It depends on the stability of the ion but not the group number always. But in the first 2 to 3 groups, it is possible. Then onwards there will be a slight change in this due to inert pair effect.

In case of 1,2,3 and slightly 4 or 5 group elements the changes of these ions corresponds to the number of valence electrons that may be lost. So the option C is correct.

Hope you had understood this explanation.

2006-07-19 07:49:08 · answer #2 · answered by Sherlock Holmes 6 · 0 0

user-friendly! the cost interior the horizontal distance is v*cos(theta) the gap travelled is x = t*v*cos(theta) the place t is time. Now you get the time from calculating how plenty time it takes to circulate up and then come backtrack. it is the time taken for it to shuttle. from y = ut + (a million/2) * a *t^2; we placed y = o because of the fact it comes back to floor .. so the gap moved in y-course is 0. u = v*sin(theta) so v*t*sin(theta) = (a million/2) * g *t^2 or v*sin(theta) = (a million/2)*g*t or t = (2*v/g)*sin(theta) and placed this in x = t*v*cos(theta); we get; or x = (2*v/g)*sin(theta)*v*cos(theta) or x = (v^2)* (2*sin(theta) *cos(theta) )/g or x = (v^2)* sin(2*theta) / g {because ... sin(2*theta) = 2*sin(theta)*cos(theta) yet thsi isn't significant in any respect} surely we are able to declare sin(2*theta) / g as some consistent because they do no longer seem to be changing so which you notice ... initially x = (v^2) * some consistent yet whilst v is replaced to v/2 ; we get x' = (v/2)^2 * some consistent..... = (v^2 / 4) * some consistent... so x'/x = a million/4 and x' = x/4 user-friendly, isnt it?

2016-11-02 08:36:33 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Yeah, it's C. Just confirming.

2006-07-19 06:47:37 · answer #4 · answered by Safari Man 2 · 0 0

c

2006-07-19 06:36:07 · answer #5 · answered by gjmb1960 7 · 0 0

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