2006-07-19 05:04:36 · 22 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
To Multiply Fractions:
* Multiply the numerators of the fractions
* Multiply the denominators of the fractions
* Place the product of the numerators over the product of the denominators
* Simplify the Fraction
Example: Multiply 2/9 and 3/12
* Multiply the numerators (2*3=6)
* Multiply the denominators (9*12=108)
* Place the product of the numerators over the product of the denominators (6/108)
* Simplify the Fraction (6/108 = 1/18)
*
* The Easy Way. It is often simplest to "cancel" before doing the multiplication. Cancelling is dividing one factor of the numerator and one factor of the denominator by the same number.
* For example: 2/9 * 3/12 = (2*3)/(9*12) = (1*3)/(9*6) = (1*1)/(3*6) = 1/18
So the same way, the answer to your problem would be 1/6, because 1 times 1 is 1, and 3 times 2 is 6 so it would be 1/6
2006-07-19 05:20:02 · answer #1 · answered by ? 3 · 6⤊ 2⤋
1/6
2006-07-19 10:50:30 · answer #2 · answered by Mrs Apple 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1/6
2006-07-19 08:54:41 · answer #3 · answered by kittaaaay 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1/6
2006-07-19 05:23:52 · answer #4 · answered by Dimos F 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1/6
2006-07-19 05:14:14 · answer #5 · answered by Ducu 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1/6
2006-07-19 05:12:21 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
1/6
2006-07-19 05:07:42 · answer #7 · answered by sseleman10 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
(1/3)(1/2) = 1/6
2006-07-19 09:39:07 · answer #8 · answered by CSUFGrad2006 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1/6.
2006-07-19 05:07:56 · answer #9 · answered by starshine01_02 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
mulitply the top numbers together and write that on the top line of your new fraction. and then do the same with the bottom numbers.
1 x 1= 1
3 x 2= 6
so the answer is 1/6.
hopefully now you know how to do it aswell as what the answer is.
Good luck
2006-07-19 06:06:22 · answer #10 · answered by happy_healthy_world 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋