Really depends on source of funding. If the church receives state funding, the argument is that this "violates" the separation of church and state, as by definition government resources are used to fund religion.
Many church organizations refuse state funding on the grounds that it places too many strictures on the churches use of funds. It is not only freedom of religion (individual), but freedom from religion (individual), and religion's freedom from government (group).
2006-07-18 14:01:58
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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The phrase "Separation of Church and State" has been bandied about for so long that many Americans believe that it is actually in the Constitution. In fact, those three words appear nowhere in the Constitution. Oblivious to the irrelevance of their arguments, and at the same time refusing to acknowledge that no document of state, let alone the Constitution, has ever proposed such a concept, those on the Left have tried to convince the American people that our founding documents warned of the dangers of mixing politics and religion.
The Establishment Clause of the First Amendment prohibits the establishment of a national religion by Congress or the preference of one religion over another, or religion over nonreligion. Prior to the enactment of the Fourteenth Amendment, and for 57 years thereafter, the courts took the position that the substantive protections of the Bill of Rights did not apply to actions by state governments. Subsequently, under the "incorporation doctrine," certain selected provisions were applied to states. It was not, however, until the middle and later years of the twentieth century that the Supreme Court began to interpret the establishment and free exercise clauses in such a manner as to restrict substantially the promotion of religion by state governments. (For example, in the Board of Education of Kiryas Joel Village School District v. Grumet, 512 U.S. 687 (1994), Justice David Souter, writing for the majority, concluded that "government should not prefer one religion to another, or religion to irreligion.")
2006-07-18 21:29:45
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answer #2
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answered by archimedes_crew 3
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Ummm, private institutions?lol. Seriously, no where in the constitution does it say separation of church and state. But that is another topic. But the way the judges are going I would say if there was even a hint that the private institution was involved in religion it would be out of line.
2006-07-18 21:08:10
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answer #3
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answered by child_of_the_lion 3
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no, only govt endorsement of one religion or another. As in display of a particular religion's icons on govt property w/o allowing other religions the same opportunity, though there is some wiggle room in that too. This was because what religion you were in Europe resulted in treason against the crown & international wars, not to mention internal oppression. Freedom of religion prevents these things (anybody say midlle east).
2006-07-18 21:00:32
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answer #4
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answered by djack 5
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No. The 1st amendment only applies to government institutions. A private school can be as religious as it wants to be (hence why we have catholic schools)
2006-07-18 21:13:59
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answer #5
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answered by dlevin9416 3
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Not some private establishments,They use religion to brain wash
2006-07-18 20:59:57
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answer #6
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answered by Hea Dude ! 6
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The establishment clause has been over used.
2006-07-18 20:59:19
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answer #7
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answered by viablerenewables 7
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no, that is your freedom of exercise.
that means it is legal to pray in school. you can say a prayer whenever you want. even in public school. but the teacher at a public school, can't lead the students in prayer.
at a private school, they can make almost any rule they want. and you're free not to go to it.
2006-07-18 21:30:19
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answer #8
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answered by uncle osbert 4
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Jerry Falwell and Pat Robertson have tax exempt status,,,
2006-07-18 21:05:05
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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no
2006-07-18 20:57:30
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answer #10
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answered by ↓ImWithStupid ░░▒▒▓▓ 4
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