2006-07-17 15:25:12 · 7 answers · asked by Psyengine 7 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
A few notes: prismatically filtered light displaces light trajectory such that each color is separated according to relative frequency differences. Theorectically this happens because each frequency decellerates (slows down) at different rates and therefore each inertial/mass variation differentiates deflection arctangents according to centrefugal from contact point at prism, i.e. a beam of white light hits a glass equalateral triangle solid (a prism) at one side and diffuses into more than one light beam at side two (the other side) each light beam a different color or light frequency. How? Mass diffential producing improbable equal arc (like turning a corner too fast in your car you slide sideways). This means that light velocity differentiates visibly to human eye sight and at very short distances. Note: light is wave/partical, sub atomic, specious EM frequency,
2006-07-18 14:16:39 · update #1
It will still be c. Something to do with the whole thing about relativity... i dont really know why and even if i did, how to explain it. but it'll still be c and not 2c.
2006-07-17 15:28:09 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Congratulations! You have just asked the question which is the reason that special relativity is still a theory. Theoretically, the relative speed should be twice the speed of light, but the same theory states that nothing can travel faster than light. Check this link out:
2006-07-18 05:38:20 · answer #2 · answered by jsprplc2006 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
two light sources.... you mean point 2 lasers directly into each other right? well in that case. their velocities are exactly the same. light always travels at the same spedd... dont know the number off the top of my head, but wwe will call it L so light 1 (L1) and light 2 (L2) are pointed directly atr each other. you want to find their relative velocities, so you would come up with an equation like this relative velocity = R
R=L1/R=L2 so if you work out that equation you get L1=L2 same velocites becuase light always travels at the same speed
2006-07-17 22:32:02 · answer #3 · answered by MstrChief55 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The speed of light.
2006-07-17 22:30:10 · answer #4 · answered by TommyTrouble 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the both travel the speed of light
2006-07-17 22:30:07 · answer #5 · answered by kioruke 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
lightning speed in reverse?
2006-07-17 22:29:00 · answer #6 · answered by Candy 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
186,000 mps, racing one towards the other.
2006-07-17 22:32:28 · answer #7 · answered by AdamKadmon 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋