I suppose "taught to its people" is opposed to "restricted to a clerical class", and not aiming at 100% literacy?
I know that Athens around 500BC had wide-spread literacy, not restricted to priests. While it was acceptable and probably common to be illiterate, learning to read and write was not restricted to members of an order. You had to be able to afford the time and expenses. No idea about Minoan era - they had a written language used for tallying etc., but with the advent of the later Greeks their culture was pushed aside.
Ancient Persia (taking over Mesopotamia) started out with a clerical class doing all the writing, but that spread to merchants and other professions that needed records, too.
In Egypt, the concept of "holy signs" (hieroglyphs) clearly shows that the general population was not supposed to read and write.
2006-07-17 22:58:07
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answer #1
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answered by jorganos 6
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The first written language originated from the Egyptians.The Egyptians used hieroglyphics for over 3,000 years ; inscriptions carved or written on stone.
2006-07-18 02:48:50
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answer #2
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answered by skeetejacquelinelightersnumber7 5
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Sumerian language, written and spoken, began about 2000BC and still has an influence in the modern language of this country even though the original language is now extinct.
2006-07-17 22:12:53
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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http://www.chevroncars.com/learn/history/first-written-language
intriguing, huh?
2006-07-17 21:00:51
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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