2006-07-17 11:46:38 · 8 answers · asked by Bub 3 in Education & Reference ➔ Trivia
It's on a few watches (i need to go check my rolex now), and 6 is VI, so i'm not sure what the reasoning is. any watchmakers out there??
2006-07-17 11:56:27 · update #1
The reason for this goes back to 1364 when Charles V scolded a watchmaker for writing IV on a tower clock. The watchmaker, Henry De Vick, argued his case, but the King brusquely replied: "I am never wrong" and so IV had to become IIII
2006-07-17 11:55:08 · answer #1 · answered by Gerardo G 4 · 3⤊ 1⤋
Because the number in the same place on the other side of the vertical axis is 8 which is written VIII. A long time ago when roman numerals were first placed on watch and clock faces, it was thought that the "print density" of IIII better "counter-balanced" that of VIII rather than IV.
2006-07-17 16:06:08 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
You probably got one of those asian 'knock off's', the ones that also spell Rolex as Rollex.
2006-07-17 11:54:20 · answer #3 · answered by nothing 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
probably when the mins needle falls on 'IV' the time can't be read clearly as opposed to IIII
2006-07-17 11:54:45 · answer #4 · answered by viking 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Some may some do not, its the designers idea of balancing the dial, probably...unless there is a logical reason. Lets see.....
2006-07-17 11:50:33 · answer #5 · answered by ••Mott•• 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
not all of them do, i have a few watched that have IV
2006-07-17 11:50:26 · answer #6 · answered by kalrissian23 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
mabey the "v" dosen't fit on the watch
2006-07-17 11:51:20 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because most people can't do the 'maths'
2006-07-17 11:49:51 · answer #8 · answered by Miss Guided 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋