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Please explain how you got the answer. First one to get it right gets the 10 pts!

2006-07-17 06:05:10 · 6 answers · asked by Marla 3 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

6 answers

try to replace 2x with some other variable like t = 2x
once you do that its pretty clear.. :) else try something like thinking backwards... :)

int (sec2x.tan2x.dx) = int( d/dx(sec2x) *(1/2).dx)
hence the answer is

= (Sec2x)/2 + C

2006-07-17 06:26:30 · answer #1 · answered by CodeRed 3 · 3 1

Here's another way to do this problem.

Use the fact that sec2x = 1/cos2x and tan2x=sin2x/cos2x.
Now you have the integral of sin2x/(cos2x)^2.
Let u = cos2x, du = -2sin2x dx, so you have -1/2 *integral of
u^(-2) dx.
Use the power rule, get the answer 1/2 * u^(-1) +c,
substitute u = cos2x and you have your answer.

2006-07-17 07:31:08 · answer #2 · answered by raz 5 · 1 0

let 2x=y
int. sec2x tan2x dx
= (1/2) * int. secy tany dy
= (1/2) * sec y +c
= sec 2x /2 +c

2006-07-17 06:09:57 · answer #3 · answered by shyam 2 · 1 0

Let us write f(y) = sec y tan y.
If now y be a function of x, then integral of f(y) dx = (integral of f(y) dy) / (dy/dx).

Now in our problem, y=2x and dy/dx=d(2x)/dx = 2.
Therefore, integral of sec 2x tan 2x dx = (sec 2x)/2.
Since, integral of sec y tan y dy =sec y.

2006-07-17 07:40:03 · answer #4 · answered by StreetX 2 · 1 0

f=ma if you sat in a gyro that spun instanious you would not spin

2006-07-17 06:23:38 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

1/2*sec(2x)

2006-07-17 06:10:19 · answer #6 · answered by Minh 6 · 1 0

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