C: 0---->100
F: 32---->212
Let us change the beginning of F.
So you will subtract 32 from F
212-32=180
180 F equals to 100 C
F-32=? C
F-32=180/100* C
then simplify
C=(F-32)*5/9
2006-07-17 01:03:42
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answer #1
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answered by iyiogrenci 6
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If you take away 32 from a Fahrenheit temperature you get the Fahrenheit degrees away from the freezing point of water (32 F). The centigrade reading takes zero as the freezing point of water and 100 C as the boiling point a difference of 100 degrees whereas in Fahrenheit the difference is 180 degrees (212 - 32). Hence you need to *5 and /9 (100/180) to complete the conversion. There is information on the origin of the scales at http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fahrenheit
2006-07-17 01:12:56
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answer #2
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answered by Robert A 5
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There's no definite logic behind it, and no definite source either. Most of the theories involve strange chemical and environmental measurements, one suggesting that 0 degrees Fahrenheit was the coldest temperature in a German scientists town over a period of measurements. There's no scientific, medical or environmental usefulness to this scale at all, which is why most all countries in the world measure temperature in Celsius.
The number 32 is random, and the formula you described is simply the only way of arriving at the conclusion.
32 degrees Fahrenheit is 0 degrees Celcius, and a Fahrenheit is 5/9ths of a Kelvin, which is the unit used in the Celcius scale.
2006-07-17 00:58:36
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answer #3
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answered by Mikkel 3
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Both scales are linear. You subtract 32 as 0 degrees F is the same as -32 degrees C. The rest is just a simple factoring exercise to convert one to the other.
By the way, both scales have the same temperature at -40 degrees and 28C is the same as 82F.
2006-07-17 00:55:04
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answer #4
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answered by the_emrod 7
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The logic is simple... that's the only way you can convert from F to C.
2006-07-17 00:54:14
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answer #5
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answered by Mr. Peachy® 7
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thats people 4 u always makin things unnecessary complicated.
2006-07-17 00:54:34
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answer #6
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answered by Powie 2
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