English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

Why, for example, do they say "disoriented" when they mean "disorientated"? (It's based on the word "orientate" not "orient", which refers to, surprise, the Oriental countries, the Far East. (or, perhaps in America, it's the Middle West?!!)

2006-07-15 23:09:09 · 29 answers · asked by dallas s 3 in Education & Reference Words & Wordplay

29 answers

If I may paraphrase Mr. Bryson, if it were not for the United States of America, the English language would have all the international importance of Portuguese. Sure Shakespeare was swell, but what has he written lately?

2006-07-15 23:30:10 · answer #1 · answered by Happy 4 · 7 9

Major suggestion -- look up all these words in the Oxford English Dictionary. You will discover that both "oriented" and "disoriented" are, in fact, the earlier ("original"?) forms! American English simply continued to use this form. Meanwhile, British English created the alternate forms with "-ate" (likely as 'back-formations' from the noun forms "(dis)orientation").

You (and some others here) seem to have made the mistake of looking in your British English dictionaries and assuming that your own usage is the "original" and "correct" one.

In fact, while there are certainly American English words that are homegrown inventions, there are also many cases of American English retaining an earlier English form that the British have replaced.

Now personally I have no objection to EITHER branch of the language changing over time (that is the nature of any LIVING language). But it your'e trying to prove some group has "corrupted" the language, perhaps you ought to begin by getting the basic historical facts straight.

(Incidentally, the same goes for accents. The basic regional accents of American English are offshoots of British regional accents. In some cases the American offspring are closer to 17th century British speech --at least certain forms of it-- than is the British "Received Pronunciation".)

2006-07-16 09:43:31 · answer #2 · answered by bruhaha 7 · 3 0

Disorient and disorientate have exactly the same meaning and both are acceptable although some prefer disorient since its antonym "orient" as a verb exists but not"orientate". I'm an American with Iguana and Chimpanzee blood.

2006-07-15 23:23:25 · answer #3 · answered by zoomjet 7 · 0 0

The verb orient does have the same root as the noun orient meaning east. To orient is to place something with respect to the east eg a church building with the chancel facing east. When used in the more common sense, to orient oneself is to get your bearings. Orientate is also a correct form.
Many discrepancies between British and American English arise from the fact that the Americans continued to use words from many years ago which were common in Britain but have changed in Britain. In years past as changes developed in either country they would be less likely to be adopted in the other. Nowadays, with technology and communication as it is, I should think that any change in use in one country is more likely to be adopted in the other (although the USA changes are probably more likely to be adopted in Britain).

2006-07-15 23:51:54 · answer #4 · answered by migelito 5 · 0 0

The United States is a "melting pot" as we all should know. Ask yourself this, the United States is made up of people from all different countries and cultural backgrounds, so how do you expect all of us to have the same pronunciations and language order, when there are so many that speak broken Italian, broken spanish, or any other language? And if you would have done your research correctly, you would have found that America has no set language.
Perhaps you should think about how most of the language spoken here all has a root of word from other languages and is further more all mixed up.
The English language is the most difficult to learn.

2006-07-16 02:08:52 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

American English derives from when settlers started moving over there in the 18th Century. There have been many influences on the English language since then. One example is the difference in saying fall and autumn. Fall would have been commonly used in England until this time, when it became very fashionable to speak French. The French for Autumn is automne. This didn't have the same effect in America, as the influences would have been different. So the languages have evolved since. This is similar to the French spoken in Quebec to the French spoken in France.

2006-07-15 23:21:06 · answer #6 · answered by Uberjon 1 · 1 0

I've been looking at these questions and answers for the past five days myself and can't figure out what happened to American English--and I am American.
Most of the questions are so poorly phrased and spelled that quite often I can't even decipher what they are saying. Their use of good grammar and accurate spelling is non-existent. They don't even bother with punctuation and when it is used it's mostly inaccurate.
I know that good education has gone south and schools don't teach anymore but I'm appalled and shocked at what I'm seeing. I had no idea of the level of ignorance and verbal inadequacy that existed among some young people.
I say "some" because I'm hoping that it's just because the younger people in this country with adequate language skills simply aren't signing onto this site.
If this IS the educational level of the AVERAGE young person in the country, then the country is in serious trouble. An ignorant population can be manipulated by any "wannabe" dictator that promises them whatever "pie-in-the-sky" concept is trendy that particular month.
Frankly, what I'm seeing here frightens me.

2006-07-15 23:29:31 · answer #7 · answered by Ellen J 7 · 2 2

The sun never sets on the British empire? It is a living language and they know not the roots of what they speak. If they understand themselves they are doing well, they do not feel the need to understand others,for they are the universes only super duper power.
my spellchecker is set for canadian english and rejects many americanisms, it also rejects some of the queens english, and is a total waste for grammer

2006-07-16 01:34:54 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

They don't speak English. But then they are not English, like me. So if they ceased referring to their language as English, everyone else would accept it as a language in it's own right, and neither side of the Atlantic would get ratty about what was spoken on the other side.

And it's disorientated in my dictionary too. But at least the Americans (like the Scots) don't pronounce grass and pass to rhyme with a r s e and farce.

2006-07-16 09:09:38 · answer #9 · answered by Rotifer 5 · 2 2

There's been a definite degredation of culture in the United States over the last 25 years and that largely explains it. There are too many kids acting ghetto and white trash thinking that there is something redeeming about it. There's nothing cool about the ghetto or trailer parks--that's why they are the ghetto and trailer parks.

2006-07-15 23:24:59 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

One of my mates went to the 'you-ess-ay' a couple of years back. Upon leaving the airport, he decided to ask some random official where to catch suitable transportation to the hotel he was staying at. The bemused official just looked at him and said, in a complacent drawl, "I don't speak english".

Says it all, doesn't it?

2006-07-15 23:28:37 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

fedest.com, questions and answers