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As of the end of 7-15-06, the Rangers and Athletics hold the same record of 47-44 for the regular season. Not counting Spring Training, which does not count for standings, the Rangers lead in games played against Oakland 6-4. In games between the Rangers and the Athletics, the Rangers have outscored the Athletics 47-44. Is it because Oakland held a true lead the most recent?

2006-07-15 19:07:30 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Sports Baseball

9 answers

Maybe it's because Oakland Athletics comes before Texas Rangers alphabetically

2006-07-15 19:11:21 · answer #1 · answered by net_at_nite 4 · 1 1

They're tied; the Rangers are listed 2nd because "Oakland Athletics" comes before "Texas Rangers" alphabetically.

2006-07-16 02:13:59 · answer #2 · answered by JerH1 7 · 0 0

I don't mean to be blunt, but at this point in the season, it doesn't matter who is at the top. If they have the same record, then they are tied.

At the end of the season, if they are still tied, then there will be a one game playoff to decide the champion. That is what is important.

2006-07-16 03:58:41 · answer #3 · answered by Adam 7 · 0 0

If I remember correctly, in the event of a tie record the team with the best record within the division (wins against AL West teams, not just entire league) is on top.

2006-07-16 02:11:28 · answer #4 · answered by xtowgrunt 6 · 0 0

They are tied for first. It doesn't matter what order they are listed in, they are still tied with Oakland.

2006-07-16 07:01:00 · answer #5 · answered by txbillyboy 3 · 0 0

abc order and screw oakland and texas, they will fall to the angels

2006-07-16 05:59:24 · answer #6 · answered by Jose Lima 2 · 0 0

bc the division sucks maybe who knows

2006-07-16 12:58:04 · answer #7 · answered by CubsFan 4 · 0 0

if two teams are tied, they are ranked in alphabetical order...

2006-07-16 02:11:39 · answer #8 · answered by old timer 4 · 0 0

probably not updated or by abc order

2006-07-16 02:12:57 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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