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try hard .i bet you can't get it.

2006-07-15 14:49:05 · 15 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

15 answers

a=b
ab=b^2
ab-a^2=b^2-a^2
a(b-a)=(b+a)(b-a)
a=b+a
a=a+a
a=2a
1=2

2006-07-15 14:56:25 · answer #1 · answered by MDMMD 3 · 1 0

if 1=a and 2=b

2006-07-15 14:58:58 · answer #2 · answered by likeskansas 5 · 0 0

MDMMD is correct... however, note that this is a standard proof for showing how a proof can be incorrect although correct statements have been made. That whole 1=2 proof is just a mathematical trick. I believe he/she ends with a=2a. MDMMD made the conclusion that we divide by a... not true. You subtract a to solve this. Therefore, the next step is that 0=a. Mathematically, MDMMD did nothing wrong... but he/she did show why this one proof although correct in technique... fails in execution.

In short, MDMMD has the correct answer you are looking for. However, please note that this is a standard trick and therefore 1 does not really equal 2.

2006-07-15 15:18:28 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

because 1 is a and b is 2?

2006-07-15 14:55:50 · answer #4 · answered by buttbutt18 2 · 0 0

log 1= 0
log2 = log 1 +1= log1+log1= 0+0= 0
therefore log 1 =log2
1=2

2006-07-15 18:00:36 · answer #5 · answered by manshu 1 · 0 0

it just like an a=1 b=2 conversation

2006-07-15 15:10:59 · answer #6 · answered by Daisy V 2 · 0 0

I could, and have, created a formula to prove that 1=2, but ultimately we all know one can not really equal two, and I am completely willing to refute any argument you may concoct to stay your position because I'm pretty sure i know where your going with this.

2006-07-15 15:10:23 · answer #7 · answered by veritas 2 · 0 0

I know this is kind'a cheating.

a = 2 nickels
b = 1 dime

Or we can always use the 0/0 error to do it like everyone else
a = b
a^2 = ab
a^2 + a^2 = a^2 + ab
2a^2 = a^2+ab
2a^2 - 2ab = a^2 + ab - 2ab
2a^2 - 2ab = a^2 - ab
2(a^2 - ab) = a^2 - ab
2(a^2 - ab)/(a^2 - ab) = (a^2 - ab)/(a^2 - ab)
2 = 1

2006-07-15 15:28:43 · answer #8 · answered by Michael M 6 · 0 0

Impossible. Why even bother worying about this nonsense. Do some Geometry proofs.

Thanks,
Buster

2006-07-15 16:04:51 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

It's impossible.

http://www.math.toronto.edu/mathnet/falseProofs/first1eq2.html

2006-07-15 14:55:15 · answer #10 · answered by icekey87 4 · 0 0

let a=1
let b=2
therefore if a=b, then 1=2
its a question in prepositional logic, not mathematics
(philosophy 101)

2006-07-15 14:56:17 · answer #11 · answered by dwh 3 · 0 0

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