Sure it does. if you think of sin and cos in terms of a ratios of the sides of a right triangle, you'll find that they correspond to the same ratios of sides. For values of theta larger than 90, it gets slightly more complicated. I think the simplest way to think about it is to realize that you get the same values for sin and cos, but with the possibility of a negative. Try 4 cases for the theta (in the 4 quadrants) and see where pi/2-theta winds up. Or you could think of pi/2 -theta as coming of the y-axis clockwise and theta as coming off the x-axis counter-clockwise (this is a lot less intuitive in my opinion.)
2006-07-15 13:14:25
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answer #1
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answered by craizdwei 2
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Of course it is. Draw a 3-4-5 right triangle and let A be the angle between 4 and 5 and B be the angle between 3 and 5. BY DEFINITION, sin A = 3/5, cos A = 4/5, sin B = 4/5, cos B = 3/5. So sin A and cos B are equal, and of course A+B = 90°.
If you want a proof using the difference formula, cos(Ï/2 - Î) = cos(Ï/2)cos(Î) + sin(Ï/2)sin(Î) = 0•cos Î + 1•sin Î = sin Î.
2006-07-15 19:16:32
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answer #2
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answered by Philo 7
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No, hardly ever. I think that might be a calculus identity, though, like the derivative of sin is cos and the derivative of cos is -sin, if I remember correctly.
2006-07-15 12:56:16
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answer #3
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answered by Cat Loves Her Sabres 6
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as mentioned somewhere above if you are using radians then you are correct.
In radians, 1deg = 0.01745radians
so 180deg = pi radians
normally in trig, sinx = cos (90 - x)
in radians, since pi/2 = 90deg, then sinx = cos (pi/2 - x)
so your statement is true but only in radians. have fun with math!
2006-07-15 18:09:47
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answer #4
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answered by Kish 3
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If you are measuring in radians, yes. To check, use the cosine angle difference formula.
2006-07-15 13:35:06
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answer #5
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answered by mathematician 7
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NO! Are you crazy?????
2006-07-15 12:55:55
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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