2006-07-15 05:33:20 · 5 answers · asked by Radhakrishna M 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Only 6 and 28. The next smallest is 496. They all have the form (2^p-1)*(2^(p-1)) where 2^p-1 is prime (which means incidentally that p must also be prime). Setting p=2 gives 6, and p=3 gives 28. p=5 gives 496. No one knows if there are an infinite number of these or not, and no one has ever found an odd one.
2006-07-15 06:51:59 · answer #1 · answered by Alexander Khan 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
6 and 28 are the perfect numbers upto 100. 6 is the first perfect number, because 1, 2 and 3 are its proper positive divisors and 1 + 2 + 3 = 6. The next perfect number is 28 = 1 + 2 + 4 + 7 + 14.
2006-07-15 06:17:46 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Just 6 and 28.
2006-07-15 05:37:15 · answer #3 · answered by Pascal 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
only 6 and 28
2006-07-15 05:36:54 · answer #4 · answered by Ivanhoe Fats 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
6
coz 1+2+3=6 and 1*2*3=6
2006-07-15 05:40:07 · answer #5 · answered by yo22g 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋