Einstein's theory of relativity was proved experimentally by showing that light from a distant star was distorted by the mass of the sun during an eclipse. Light IS affected by gravity. Light "supposedly" has no mass, yet it is still affected by gravity. Is F=Gm1m2/r^2 not really the correct way to look at it? Is this just a simplified case? I understand that spacetime is curved and this is what really causes gravitational effects according to Einstein. Any "object" (photon, electron, with mass, massless) is affected by gravity because it is following curved spacetime. This tells me that the definition for gravitational force is incorrect. If the mass of one of the two objects is 0, then F=0. Both objects are taken into account when both have mass because they both warp spacetime around them, but if only one has mass, IT ONLY warps spacetime, but the definition does not leave room for this idea.
Hmmmmmmmmmmm..............?
2006-07-14
16:41:02
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7 answers
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asked by
Thomas P
2
in
Science & Mathematics
➔ Physics
Even with the answers given so far, what is the correct definition of the gravitational force if the REAL cause if the curvature of spacetime?
2006-07-14
17:07:39 ·
update #1