be in 50 years?
2006-07-14 13:46:48 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
well, since the rate of decline has been mentioned,
lets use the formula
A=P(1-r/100)^n
where A-future expected figure
P-prersent figure
r-rate
n-no: of years
therefore,
A= 50,000,000 * (1 - 1/100)^50
=50,000,000 *(1-0.01)^50
=50,000,000 *(0.99)^50
=50,000,000 *0.6050
=30250303.3569
apprx = 30250304
therefore, popln after 50yrs 'll be 30,250,304
2006-07-14 14:03:22 · answer #1 · answered by chintu 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Only chintu and Peedah have given you the right answer, but at least chintu explained it. At the beginning of the first year, the population is P. At the end of the first year it is P*(1-r/100) (if r is percent). This is the population at the beginning of the second year, not P, so at the end of the second year the population will be P*(1-r/100)*(1-r/100) or P*(1-r/100)^2. Then the population after the nth year will be P*(1-r/100)^n.
2006-07-14 21:09:16 · answer #2 · answered by gp4rts 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The population declines at 1% per what?? second? minute? day? week? Units of measure do matter.
2006-07-15 02:40:13 · answer #3 · answered by Greyhound_Guy 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
fifty-million/one hundred take that number and multiply it by fifty and subtract it from the origional fifty-million
(50million / 100)*50=a
to get population
50million-a=population
2006-07-14 20:59:52 · answer #4 · answered by neon-truth 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Multiply 50,000,000 by .99 50 times and you'll get your answer.
2006-07-14 20:50:20 · answer #5 · answered by Hot T-Bone 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
take the derivative...all questions in math can be solved by taking the derivative and setting the equation equal to zero.
2006-07-14 20:49:43 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It will be 30,250,303
2006-07-14 20:51:33 · answer #7 · answered by Peedah 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋