divide 1980 oranges to 0 persons.i need the answer.
2006-07-13 21:08:02 · 17 answers · asked by rajesh bhowmick 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Keep all the 1980 oranges to yourself.
There is no one to give them to.
2006-07-13 21:15:05 · answer #1 · answered by Ash 2 · 1⤊ 3⤋
The correct answer is 'undefined'. It is not meaningful for us to ask, "If I have equal sets of 0, how many of those sets will combine to give me a set of 1980?", because adding many sets of zero will never amount to 1980.
2006-07-14 04:34:16 · answer #2 · answered by SciFiGuy 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Infinite. Because the oranges are still there and cannot be distributed to anyway.
0 persons means we are distributing the oranges to no-one.
If we give out oranges to no-one, who is going to receive the oranges? No-one will receive the oranges.
Hence no answer.
2006-07-14 05:03:06 · answer #3 · answered by chiploon 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
try dividing 1980 with nothing
2006-07-14 04:23:28 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
0 is the answer
2006-07-15 10:08:17 · answer #5 · answered by Ahmed 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
0!
2006-07-14 10:22:06 · answer #6 · answered by Sk8erboi83 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Anything divided by zero is taken as infinity
2006-07-14 04:19:48 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Technically, you cannot divide by zero, so you would have an unreal answer. It's called an imaginary number.
2006-07-14 04:11:51 · answer #8 · answered by L S 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
answer is 0
2006-07-14 04:12:29 · answer #9 · answered by GeT fAmIliAr 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
who will divide it
no body is there only the oranges
2006-07-14 06:48:21 · answer #10 · answered by corrona 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋