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The Europeans like British, French,Dutch,Portugese, Spanish wanted to expand their rule to Asia, Africa, America in earlier times. When they got success in their effort in India and many African countries, why it was not possible for them to initiate ventures in Japan ,Korea etc??

2006-07-13 07:58:38 · 14 answers · asked by adapoda 3 in Politics & Government Other - Politics & Government

14 answers

China was almost divided by UK, Germany, Russia, France, and Japan.
Japan won the war with Russia and China.

Korean peninsula was ceded from China to Japan.
Japan have never been a colony in the history.

2006-07-17 17:33:29 · answer #1 · answered by Joriental 6 · 1 0

The cost of colonizing those areas was probably not worth the benefit to the European powers. Some of these areas may have been difficult to conquer, hold, and administer. They may have lacked resources that were of value at the time, or were too far from normal trade routes to efficiently exploit.

Japan, for example, was an island nation at the farthest ends of Asia. It would have been relatively hard to take possesion of Japan and defend it against other European powers. It's people were fiercely independent and arguably xenophobic. Japan didn't have the spices of India or the jewels of Africa, so colonization probably didn't seem worth the effort, especially when many European powers were already committed in the Americas, the Carribean, and Africa.

One or more of these reasons probably explain why some parts of the world were colonized, while others were not.

2006-07-13 08:09:40 · answer #2 · answered by timm1776 5 · 0 0

In the day of the early explorer and the "New World", it was extremely difficult to get to such places, as you had to sail either all the way around Africa, through the Indian Ocean, and across the Philippines to even make it to Southeast Asia. The other way would be to sail all the way across the Atlantic, down around South America, back up to North America, and across to Southeast Asia. You have to take into account that a) all of the ships were made of wood, and any major storm would sink most ships in the area, b) The Suez and Panama canals were not opened until fairly recent history, c) all five of your examples were ordered to attack any of the others on site, d) there was no refrigeration for supplies, e) most ports in Africa and the Americas were not well established enough to re-supply such a long journey, f) pirates were amazingly heavy around the Canary Islands and in the Caribbean (as well as in the Mediterranean), and g) it takes an immense amount of money to keep such an expedition going, and without political backing, one couldn't go very far. I hope this winded explanation answers your question.

2006-07-13 08:09:57 · answer #3 · answered by Phoenix_Slasher 4 · 0 0

Controlling the colonies they controlled also allowed them to control major waterways as well as more natural resources.

Asia proper was not that attractive to the French...though they did control what is now Vietnam and the british did control parts of China(see boxer rebellion).

Japan and Korea had little if any natural resources of interest to the French/British so they left them alone.

Keep in mind at one point the British Empire stretched so far that it was always daylight somewhere in the Empire...to do this they HAD to have interests in Asia.

Hope this helps

2006-07-13 08:07:37 · answer #4 · answered by jaydragon0 2 · 0 0

The only reason why there is massive and indiscriminate third world immigration into western countries is because the managerial elite decided to turn western nations into polyglot transnational job-centres for the purposes of maximizing corporate profit and shoring up their power base. Multiculturalism is just the shallow ideological justification for this transformation of western society along consumerist lines. Your question highlights the double standard implicit in current multiculturalist thinking, which argues that third world dreck should be allowed to maintain their ethno-religious identities, but western majorities should be demonized for doing so. That massive third world immigration has nothing to do with economic prosperity can be seen by east Asian countries such as Japan, south Korea, and Taiwan, which have experienced tremendous growth and industrial development without any accompanying changes in their demographic character. Would Japan ever tolerate mass third world immigration? No, because the Japanese are very xenophobic and have a long history of xenophobia (the Tokugawa shogunate forced the Japanese into a long period of isolation after 1600). For example, a Pakistani national once threatened to kill himself, his wife and his children if he wasn't allowed into Japan as a refugee, but was instead immediately deported. Furthermore, because of the Chinese thrust into Africa, there is a large settlement of Africans in Guangzhou, China, which increases 30-40% each year. This has resulted in racial tension and conflict. So no, it's fairly obvious that racism is not a "white person thing." Everyone is racist and those who demonize others as "racist" for wanting to preserve their ethno-religious identities in the face of massive and indiscriminate third world immigration are often the most racist and intolerant of them all.

2016-03-27 04:02:25 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

it's is very difficult to win a land war in asia!! Asia is so far away that the armies would have to travel long distances. By the time they got there, the troops would be exausted. All the other places that they did colonize were closer, or easier to get to by sea. Most of those places were actually colonized when they were trying to get to Asia!! There is no short-cut to Asia- that's what Christopher Columbus was looking for when he found North America.

2006-07-13 08:06:29 · answer #6 · answered by hilarywow 3 · 0 0

The French, British and Germans did try to colonize China and the British did succeed in Hong Kong. But partly because the Chinese had a strong Imperial government in place that could organize resistance, they were largely unsuccessful.

2006-07-13 08:06:15 · answer #7 · answered by October 7 · 0 0

China was carved into spheres of influence, with each European power having exclusive trading rights in their specific sphere. It is more efficent and less expensive to trade and excercise limited control of a territory than outright conquering a region. If one European power made a grab for all of China, you would have likely had a European continental conflict as well.

Japan was forced to trade thanks to Perry's 'Gunboat Diplomacy'. Japan industrialized very quickly after that point and was capable of defending itself... i.e. the Russo-Japanese War. And Korea.. not quite sure... but they were subjected to the sphere of influence as in China. But, they were conquered by Japan in 1911 and did become a colony. Remeber, Japan was a colonial power itself.

2006-07-13 08:53:36 · answer #8 · answered by vswami05 2 · 0 0

They made Asian and African countries their colonies because of the naturally available resources in these countries like spices, cotton, jute and other grown products. They were either interested in these products or cheap labor like australia.

2006-07-13 08:33:37 · answer #9 · answered by freemind 2 · 0 0

all nations were farm -based feudal nations till the 20 the century.

1. who can have science /industry will make guns tanks machine guns and airplanes.

2. 800 spaniards defeated 1 million aztecs in mexico.

this is what happens when people fall behind in science and technology.

one get wiped out or colonize like india or africa.

2016-01-27 15:02:16 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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