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It does say that congress shall pass no law abridging the rights of citizens to practice their religion and that will not be a state religion (like the church of England) but when I read the constitution I never saw anything that said "separation of church and state” Did I miss it (this is not a sarcastic question I really could have missed something)

2006-07-13 05:13:36 · 6 answers · asked by Ethan M 5 in Politics & Government Politics

6 answers

The phrase does come from Jefferson as those specific words are not in the constitution:

"Believing with you that religion is a matter which lies solely between Man & his God, that he owes account to none other for his faith or his worship, that the legitimate powers of government reach actions only, & not opinions, I contemplate with sovereign reverence that act of the whole American people which declared that their legislature should “make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof,” thus building a wall of separation between Church & State."

http://www.chroniclesmagazine.org/Chronicles/May2003/0503Dreisbach.html

2006-07-13 05:25:45 · answer #1 · answered by truly 6 · 1 0

Take a look at the papers of Thomas Jefferson. He furthered what was said by the Constitution to full separation of church. I don't remember what brought that up at the time but this comes down from Jefferson. He said that was what they intended.

2006-07-13 12:36:46 · answer #2 · answered by olderandwiser 4 · 0 0

The Constitution does not use the phrase "separation of church and state," a phrase attributed to Thomas Jefferson, who considered the disestablishment of the church in Virginia to be among his life's greater accomplishments.

2006-07-13 12:27:32 · answer #3 · answered by pdp 1 · 0 0

1st Amendment Religious Clauses
“Congress shall make no laws respecting an establishment of religion or prohibiting the free exercise thereof.”

Clearly says that the state cannot establish a religion or prohibit the excercise of.

Test to determine whether government action violates the establishment clause:
Lemon Test ( Lynch v. Donnelly):
Has to meet all three criteria:
1)Must have a Secular legislative purpose,
2)Principle or Primary effect neither advances nor inhibits religion,
3)Statute must not foster excessive entanglement of government w/religion.

2006-07-13 12:23:53 · answer #4 · answered by DT 2 · 0 0

It is NOT in the Constitution. It is a derived political doctrine based on a letter from Thomas Jefferson.

2006-07-13 12:18:30 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

There is a good discussion of this topic here:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Separation_of_Church_%26_State

2006-07-13 12:20:26 · answer #6 · answered by thseamon 2 · 0 0

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