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Solve serie:

20,12,8,6,?

Which number fits better at last position, following the 6?

Please, EXPLAIN your result. Best solution wins 10 POINTS.
there will be no best answer if you don't explain how you get
the result.

This is not homework, I'm interested on learning how logic is applied to solve certain problems.

2006-07-12 09:45:48 · 13 answers · asked by i g 3 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

HEY... thanks for all answers

Ok, many said 5 and explanations are ok. Its not incorrect, but there are more solutions.

Now, for new ppl, before answering "5" try to think in other alternatives. THis also goes for the ones already answered, feel free to edit and change your answers.

ty!

2006-07-12 09:56:37 · update #1

13 answers

5

20/2+2= 12
12/2+2=8
8/2+2=6
6/2+2=5

you halve you last answer then add 2

2006-07-12 09:51:20 · answer #1 · answered by setsunaandkurai 2 · 0 0

Yup, it's five. Another way to look at it is that all the numbers are half of the previous number plus two. 20/2 = 10 + 2 = 12...12/2 = 6 + 2 = 8...8/2 = 4 + 2 =6...

which would mean that 6/2 = 3 + 2 = 5.

2006-07-12 09:54:02 · answer #2 · answered by Philthy 5 · 0 0

the following number after 6 will be 5, because the difference between 20 and 12 is 8, and this difference is divided by 2 as proceeding with the sequence, so the number after 12 will be 12-4 = 8, and then 8-2= 6, and the last one is 6-1=5

2006-07-12 09:52:37 · answer #3 · answered by Turkleton 3 · 0 0

Answer is 5
The logic goes:
20 - 8 = 12
12 - 4 = 8
8 - 2 = 6
6 - 1 = 5
It is obvious that each time the number subtracted is a multiple of 2. (8/2=4; 4/2=2....therefore 2/2=1)
So what remained to be done was to subtract 1 from 6.

2006-07-12 09:51:42 · answer #4 · answered by Mercurial G 1 · 0 0

Well the series is -8, -4, -2, which are all divisible by 2, so I'm guessing the next logical trend would be -1, meaning the next number would be 5.

2006-07-12 09:48:20 · answer #5 · answered by TheAnomaly 4 · 0 0

20-8 = 12
12-4=8
8-2=6
6-1=5
3 guys rent a hotel room for $30.00. They each give the clerk $10.00. An hour later the clerk realizes the room only cost $25.00. He gives the bellhop $5.00 to return to the guys. The guys keep $1.00 each and give the bellhop a $2.00 tip. My question is each guy ended up paying $9.00. Right? 3X9 =27, the bellhop kept $2.00. What happened to the other dollar?

2006-07-12 09:55:06 · answer #6 · answered by Bob D 6 · 0 0

5. First you subtract 8 form 20, making 12. Then you subtract half of 8 (4) from 12 to get 8. Then 2 from 8 to get 6. Then finally subtract half of 2, which is one, form six to get 5.

2006-07-12 09:49:09 · answer #7 · answered by Kris 2 · 0 0

5

The reason is because:

20-12=8
12-8 =4
8-6=2

The end numbers are divided by half (8, 4, 2)

Half of 2 is 1

So the next number would be 5

2006-07-12 09:47:52 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

5
8 divided by 2 = 4
4 divided by 2=2
2 divided by 2=1

2006-07-12 09:52:52 · answer #9 · answered by brandiwhine 4 · 0 0

5 because the pattern starts out as 20-12=8 then 12-8=4 half of 8 is 4 so u break 4 in half and u get two which is wat u get when u do 8-6 so just break two in haf which is 1 so 6-1=5

2006-07-12 09:48:49 · answer #10 · answered by ♥OHIO*HONEY♥ 4 · 0 0

2
coz 20 - 12 = 8 - 6 = 2

ok?

2006-07-12 09:54:31 · answer #11 · answered by yo22g 2 · 0 0

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