2006-07-12 08:59:53 · 11 answers · asked by you go girl 1 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
My god, why do women think money when they think divorce? It's embarrassing to be a woman and listen to crap such as this. You should get what you came in with and half of what you got together, no more, no less.
2006-07-12 09:02:33 · answer #1 · answered by Michelle F 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes you are. If using only his financials to purchase the home, you don't have to be on the mortgage. What ever you time you put in the marriage is the amount of equity you are intitled to. You can get up to half the equity in the home. I am a mortgage broker.
2006-07-12 16:05:19 · answer #2 · answered by RG 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Depends upon the situation and when the home was purchased. If purchased after the marriage then more than likely yes. You need to consult with an attorney in your state. Divorce laws differ from state to state. Protect yourself by seeking good legal advice.
God bless....
2006-07-12 17:39:26 · answer #3 · answered by totallylost 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Depends on the laws in your state. I believe that anything aquired during the marriage until the date of seperation is considered "marital property." Then the answer would be yes. But go thru a lawyer from your state to find out for sure.
2006-07-12 16:03:05 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
You could be entitled to alimony if you don;t work.
You are entitled to child support for your kids
You are entitled to half of any securities, bonds, investments etc. if they were ousrchased during your marriage.
Any marriage property: cars, furniture, etc. should be divided equally. You can negotiate with your spouse who gets who or if you should buy his half and viceversa.
Any adquired debt: loans, credit cards, etc, should also be divided!
Real state:
If there is no pre-nup and the property was purchased during your marriage, yes, you are entitled to half of the equaty even if you are not in the title of the house.
Get legal advice !!!!!!
Good luck
2006-07-12 16:06:48 · answer #5 · answered by Blunt 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I'm not really sure but I think it has something to do with wether or not you paid any of the payments, did you work too and if not your "homemaker" status has to count for something. Like i said, I really don't know. As far as I know, since you were married to who was on the mortgage it is just as much yours.
2006-07-12 16:04:51 · answer #6 · answered by kiss me 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If the home was purchased before the marriage no..but if it was purchased later. You can fight it and prove you contributed to the buying of the home. Anything purchased while marriage is half yours.
2006-07-12 16:13:42 · answer #7 · answered by GoldenGirl 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
depends on the state in live in look up divorce lawyers in your state and ask they should give free consultation over the phone
2006-07-12 16:04:46 · answer #8 · answered by teresa d 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes..should be community property...unless he has had the house years before your marriage then it may be pro-rated.
2006-07-12 16:03:10 · answer #9 · answered by Goodspeed 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think that Michelle F is right about this.
2006-07-12 16:17:00 · answer #10 · answered by TinkerBell 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋