Same speed, yes. Same amount, no.
2006-07-11 17:30:14
·
answer #1
·
answered by FireMedic 3
·
0⤊
1⤋
The speed of unimpeded water ejected from a hole is the same as if it fell from the top of the water to where the hole is. So same speed (if the holes are at the same depth which you will need to assume. Also if they're above the water line nothing will flow).
There will be greater flow from the 2" hole as it has an area of 4pi square inches whereas the two 1" holes have a combined area of 2pi square inches.
As far as water tension goes (viscosity to be precise) the water will be impeded at the edges of the holes. As the two 1" holes have a greater percentage of their area near the edges the water will be impeded more so they will have a slightly lower speed at which water pours out.
I don't think water tension'll be what they're asking for though.
Short answer same speed, but twice the rate of flow from the 2" hole as from the 2 1" holes.
2006-07-11 18:31:14
·
answer #2
·
answered by Paul C 4
·
0⤊
0⤋
on the other hand, even though the two hole bottle has less open area for water flow, you could tip the bottle over such that one hole was exposed to the air, so air could flow INTO the bottle in that hole, and water flow OUT the other hole.
I suspect that would actually empty the bottle faster than the single large hole going glug glug glug
then again, if you tip the single hole bottle sideways so that half the hole acts as an air intake, I guess it would win again.
2006-07-11 21:43:10
·
answer #3
·
answered by samsyn 3
·
0⤊
0⤋
speed of water will depend only on the depth/height.but the flow of water will depend upon the area of cross section.since the area of cross section of two holes of 1" dia will be 1/2 times the area of cross section of one hole of 2"dia the flow will be more in the latter case than the formal.however the pressure will be more through the 1"dia holes than the 2"dia hole
2006-07-11 17:41:10
·
answer #4
·
answered by raj 7
·
0⤊
0⤋
No, it will not flow out at the same speed, and it has nothing to do with tension. It has to do with the fact that the hole in your second container has twice the area of both holes in your first container (Area of holes in first container=2*πr²=π/2 in²; Area of hole in second container=πr²=π in²).
2006-07-11 17:37:37
·
answer #5
·
answered by Pascal 7
·
0⤊
0⤋
The area of the holes is the same.
2006-07-11 17:41:36
·
answer #6
·
answered by atlantech1966 1
·
0⤊
0⤋
The area of a circle is pi times the square of the radius.
Area of one inch diameter circle = 3.1416
Area of two such circles = 6.28 square inches.
Area of two inch diameter circle = 3.1416 x 4 = 12.57 square inches
2006-07-11 17:36:19
·
answer #7
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
0⤋
whats the question
2006-07-11 17:30:21
·
answer #8
·
answered by asianboy7o7 3
·
0⤊
0⤋
No it wouldn't.
2006-07-11 17:40:53
·
answer #9
·
answered by merlin558nj 2
·
0⤊
0⤋