2006-07-11 17:19:58 · 6 answers · asked by eeyoreshunni 3 in Games & Recreation ➔ Card Games
I understand that I can get 5 of a kind. For instance 2's are wild, I have 3 fives and 2 two's. That is 5 of a kind. Is it a legal hand? What does it beat?
2006-07-12 12:29:37 · update #1
While technically you can, it all depends on the rules set by those your are playing with. A lot of people that play "no-wilds" poker may tend to go by the four of a kind max rule, and allow wilds for straights and flushes. However, a normal straight, or flush beats out one of same high value made using a wild.
2006-07-12 05:03:23 · answer #1 · answered by escaped_mental_case 4 · 4⤊ 4⤋
Yes. However the House makes up the rules. I've played with rules such as:
-"You can only use a wild to match other cards in your hand" (so no straights or flushes with wilds).
So just make sure you ask the House their rule before the game starts. If you are the House...then you pick.
2006-07-12 00:28:54 · answer #2 · answered by Sbarstow226 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Sure depending on what you make wild before the hand is dealt. If there are 5-7 players, the odds are really high but possible.
2006-07-12 00:27:07 · answer #3 · answered by David K 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Of course you can.
Take the following example: deuces wild game
I have 4 Kings and 1 deuce That equals 5 of a kind.
2006-07-12 00:25:23 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not with all wilds.
2006-07-12 04:34:01 · answer #5 · answered by Darren 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No
2006-07-12 00:22:56 · answer #6 · answered by Melissa 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋