2006-07-11 16:13:22 · 6 answers · asked by shravani a 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
For constant acceleration S=ut+(1/2)at^2
Thus, the acceleration will be twice the proportionality constant.
As this hasn't been specified you can't give a numerical answer.
You can however determine that the initial velocity = zero.
2006-07-11 17:12:31 · answer #1 · answered by Paul C 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The product of acceleration and the square of the time of travel will give proportionate distance covered by the body in the interval of time provided the initial speed is zero.
The proportionality constant is '"0.5"
2006-07-11 16:53:22 · answer #2 · answered by Pearlsawme 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
velocity is mass in motion at a certain rate(s) distance travelled is determined by length of time mass has motion the acceleration of mass is caused by force less resistance the motion phase determined by proportion of force and weight relative to gravity and lack of resistance acceleration is meter per second sqared
2006-07-11 16:25:16 · answer #3 · answered by Book of Changes 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Look at the equations describing motion under constant acceleration. (They are in your physics text book and/or class notes.) One of those equations involves distance, time, and acceleration, and is the key to answering your question.
2006-07-11 16:52:41 · answer #4 · answered by genericman1998 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
x light
2006-07-11 16:17:17 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
my first impression is that ,no such thing. rephrase your question.
2006-07-11 16:28:17 · answer #6 · answered by chanljkk 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋