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2006-07-11 09:03:37 · 15 answers · asked by m0nig86chevy 2 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

15 answers

In a sense, it's reverse racism. When a more qualified white applicant loses out to a less qualified black applicant due to a minority quota, that is definitely descrimination if not outright racism.

2006-07-11 09:07:41 · answer #1 · answered by ratboy 7 · 1 1

There is no question, Affirmative Action is racism.

2006-07-11 16:49:01 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Any government sponsored program that dictates a preference of one race over another, for the sake of intellectual honesty, must be called the Racism that it truly is.

The only Constitutionally legal position is that all persons should be equal before the laws and before the government. I do not recall seeing any Amendment to change that.

2006-07-11 16:15:53 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Not only is it racist, it's down right wrong.

Also, in case everyone forgot, Racism is not a crime. A man can hate another man for what ever reason he so chooses to do so. It only becomes a crime if he acts upon it.

Which is exactly what affirmative action did.

2006-07-12 02:54:35 · answer #4 · answered by cat_Rett_98 4 · 0 0

It was originally created to create a balance proportionate to various people in employment. It was a well meaning idea that has played out. I think it accomplished one thing and that is to show that no matter who you are or where you come from, there is a place in the working society for you. These ground breakers have provided a positive example of what can be accomplished. With these examples now in place, I believe that this practice has outlived its usefulness.

2006-07-11 16:24:25 · answer #5 · answered by diaryofamadblackman 4 · 0 0

no.

like the civil war, womens suffrage, and the Civil rights act of 64.

Nobody just gives equality.....these groups had to fight for it.

and if you have to be forced to be equal so be it.
if you say no no, just refer to my previous examples.....emancipation had to forced, womens sufrage had to be force....Ending Jim Crow had to be forces.........

why? Because of real racism and sexism........if you are arguing that the White Male is a victim your going to have to do better than that.....


Affrimitive action is not racism... it is a policy that has been upheld by the Supreme Court and within the Consttituional protections.....

Quotas are illegal, the word quotas has been tossed around forever even though there are no quotas......See Baki vs Davis.......

so no.

2006-07-11 16:15:22 · answer #6 · answered by nefariousx 6 · 0 0

i don't know if you call it racism but affirmative action sucks. you shouldn't get preferencial treatment because you are a minority, you should definitely not be discriminated against, but they should find a better way to prevent discrimination.

2006-07-11 16:08:51 · answer #7 · answered by cheesey :) 3 · 0 0

Yes & No, It's a poor attempt at leveling the playing field for minority races and women.

2006-07-11 16:07:26 · answer #8 · answered by rf186 4 · 0 0

Yes in a way. It's preference used to correct former wrongs.

2006-07-11 16:06:44 · answer #9 · answered by csucdartgirl 7 · 0 0

Giving preference because of race? Hmmm....... Only if the preference is to whites. That' s the Democrat definition of equality.

2006-07-12 04:39:08 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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