I agree with the fact that what the two of you accrude during your marriage should be equally split, although if she didn't work or contribute to finances, maybe she should only get what she came into the marriage with. I think it's horrible when/if woman try to get away with the "bank" .... they should earn it on their own. Good Luck!
2006-07-11 03:07:17
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answer #1
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answered by izzynindie 2
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The woman is only entitled to half of whatever was acquired during the marriage, not what was brought into it. The issue then becomes documentation of the date of acquisition. All this can be resolved in advance with a well executed pre-nup if the guy anticipates difficulties.
As far as the equitable split of assets acquired during marriage, absolutely the woman is entitled to half. As for alimony, it doesn't have to be indefinite. Depends on the nature of the relationship during the marriage.
2006-07-11 09:59:12
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answer #2
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answered by jurydoc 7
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I don't think it is right unless she didn't work at your bequest or she is just unable to work. Even then there is no reason that she should get half. I think way too many women take advantage of our warped legal system to try and get the easy way out. So again, unless she is physically unable to work, she should not receive alimony. As far as your assets, she should not get any of what you had before the marriage and only a portion of what was earned after. Good luck.
2006-07-11 09:43:23
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answer #3
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answered by justme 1
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whatever is yours before u got married should be yours and not split with your wife, however anything the two of you purchased together while married does need to be split between the two of you. Alimony on the other hand, I do not agree with, no man should have to pay any woman alimony. If my husband and I were to get divorced I would not ask for alimony, it is wrong and selfish for a woman to do that to a man.
2006-07-11 10:28:06
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answer #4
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answered by ? 3
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Half of their assets... being assets gained during the marriage... yes.
Anything he owned before the marriage... no.
Alimony... would depend on a few things.
The length of the marriage... just a few years - no.
Was she able to work during the marriage?
What kind of bills did the couple have together?
Is she able to pay her portion of these bills alone?
2006-07-11 09:46:23
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answer #5
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answered by sweethvn 2
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No. And I am a woman. Tho if it is the case that she sacrifices her career in order to raise children and take care of her husband and home then yes. But if two people marry then divorce with no children involve then they should each leave with what they made themselves.
2006-07-11 09:36:01
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answer #6
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answered by bexik 2
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Whatever percentage the woman put in is what she should get out. There are certain cases though. I don't see a problem with making sure your ex is financially ok like a few bucks to help them move out or get a car.
2006-07-11 09:48:32
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answer #7
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answered by Nic Jones 5
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well yes and no , I would say that if you were together many years and she stayed at home raising kids for you I say yes but if she can take care of herself and works I say no .....Its what is fair to the situation and term of relationship cause you know the marriage takes to and you both acquired the assets together so she is entitled to her half .
2006-07-11 10:11:02
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answer #8
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answered by patton2@swbell.net 1
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well if she has been ther for u and has helped u get everything u have now yes
but if she married u and u already were wealthy then no b/c she didn t help u
2006-07-11 10:06:14
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answer #9
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answered by JAZY 4
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you dont legally have to give her anything you had BEFORE the marriage
2006-07-11 10:06:55
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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