2006-07-11 02:24:46 · 8 answers · asked by good 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
They are devinely interpreted.
2006-07-11 02:28:50 · answer #1 · answered by AbnormalEgo 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
They evolved from Brahmi numerals, undergoing some shape changes in the Middle East before becoming the numbers we use today.
The numbers 1, 2, and 3 were originally just tally marks -- 1 stroke, 2 strokes, and 3 strokes -- but as people wrote them more and more quickly, they became stylized. For instance, the two marks (=) became connected by a diagonal because it was quicker to write a Z shape than to lift the pen and put it down again.
Eventually, these so-called "Arabic numerals" were brought to Europe and championed by Leonardo Fibonacci, one of the great Italian mathematicians.
For more info, see the articles below. Hope that helps!
2006-07-11 03:06:00 · answer #2 · answered by Jay H 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If it was a Welshman, when he reached 21 he got arrested for indecency.
2006-07-11 02:40:46 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
They are Arabic
2006-07-11 02:27:38 · answer #4 · answered by Gunnar S 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
those are all arabic numerals.. so I guess the Arabians..
Romans did not have such good luck with their numbers I, II, III, IV, V,VI,VII,VIII, IX... too hard to do math with those!
2006-07-11 04:14:33 · answer #5 · answered by ♥Tom♥ 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the hindus invented them but the arabs spread them. i think its right.
2006-07-11 02:40:24 · answer #6 · answered by Croasis 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The arabs
2006-07-11 02:28:43 · answer #7 · answered by farfromfl 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
arabs
2006-07-11 02:27:47 · answer #8 · answered by greatire 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋