2006-07-10 17:00:53 · 9 answers · asked by B. Ryan 1 in Sports ➔ Football ➔ FIFA World Cup (TM)
That way the guys who get away with it on the field will still have to own up to the consequences of screwing up the game.
2006-07-10 20:10:30 · update #1
Maybe because Italy, Portugal & Brazil would then not be able to qualify anymore to the world cup.
2006-07-10 17:06:25 · answer #1 · answered by Rod b 3 · 3⤊ 0⤋
Its sort of a principal. Once the decision was made, its final. So, if the ref said you won, then you won. Even if you were offsides... HOWEVER, they do use it to punish refs. If a ref makes a bad call (like the ref during the USA Italy match) you'll never see him again. If you are talking about the zidan incident, then they would use it to punsih the player. Zidan will be paying a hefty fine...
2006-07-10 17:06:08 · answer #2 · answered by Mark E 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is my understanding that the referees are not allow to rely on the big screen in the stadium during a match.
However, I'm pretty sure that the FIFA can and has used video footage for disciplinary purposes and for referee assessment.
2006-07-10 17:05:12 · answer #3 · answered by Otis F 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
They do sometimes. For example, Torsten Frings of Germany received a fine and a one match suspension for his part in the Argentina-Germany brawl following the quarter-final match. He only received this punishment after footage was uncovered that showed him throwing a punch at one of the Argentinian players.
2006-07-10 17:06:14 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Wow, these responses are really interesting. Makes me wonder it that's the case, why can't they use instant replay. I don't want to see them using it for every single call as the game would go on and on forever but when there's a really flagrant foul or question of a goal, I just think the refs would see it would be to their advantage to access.
2006-07-10 17:08:41 · answer #5 · answered by Sonie 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Its mainly based on tradition. And if they were to introduce it, where would they draw the line at which circumstances to use it and which to not?
2006-07-10 17:06:48 · answer #6 · answered by grape_oe 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because it is not in the rules. They have to change the rules to consider it.
2006-07-10 17:15:25 · answer #7 · answered by Mamita K 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't know!! They should though!
2006-07-10 17:04:23 · answer #8 · answered by wherestheid 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
they should.
2006-07-10 17:06:38 · answer #9 · answered by standstill 22 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋