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Rich, white neighborhoods had to wait 10 minutes to get to the polls. In minority neighborhoods the lineups were 2 hours.

2006-07-10 15:54:32 · 4 answers · asked by Hillbillies are... 5 in Politics & Government Government

Other countries have much higher per capita voter turnout and yet people don't have to wait to vote. Canada, for example.

2006-07-10 15:57:49 · update #1

4 answers

In Florida and Ohio in 2000 and 2004 neighborhoods and groups that were expected to vote Democratic were targeted for any number of procedures expected to discourage voting.

One, of course, is that few voting machines were provided, causing longer lines and discouraging poorer voters, who could not afford to miss that many hours of work.

But, sadly, that is only one of many techniques used to win (steal?) those elections.

Older, less reliable machines are used in such precincts, knowing that more ballots will turn up "damaged" and, hence, uncountable.

"Felons' names" are removed from voting lists, even when that is not legal and/or when the names were felons in another state, NOT the honest citizens long registered to vote in these precincts.

Poor, minority drivers are stopped and threatened by highway patrol on election day.

Rumors are spread that voting places may be "attacked" by terrorists and will be dangerous on election day.

Recently in many legislatures controlled by Republicans, laws requiring voter ID have been passed, effectively imposing a new poll tax on citizens who do not have drivers' licenses. Elderly, disabled, and/or poor citizens are more likely not to have drivers' licenses. They are also more likely to vote Democratic. They have to pay for the IDs; they have to provide transportation to centers where the IDs are issued, sometimes not at all conveniently located. And, in some cases, they have to provide birth certificates or other legal documentation, which they may not have available and may find very costly and time-consuming to attain.

Why are such procedures--like the unfair distribution of polling stations in poor or black neighborhoods--now in practice. For the same reason that electronic voting machines, developed by corporate American (Diebold, for example), are being used without a proper paper trail.

To make it easier for corporate American to control the election process. To turn out democratic republic into an oligarchy, "a government of the few, especially a small faction of individuals or families. To make our elections cardboard facsimiles of the real thing, as they once were in Soviet countries--and may still be in Russia.

Why do the national media not inform us of these shenanigans? Because corporate America controls most of those big national newspapers and television or radio networks.

2006-07-10 16:28:26 · answer #1 · answered by bfrank 5 · 2 0

Voting and polling places are determined by the local election boards. It is the actual board in the neighborhoods that are to blame.

Next it was not really that way, a few places because of broken machines and in some others because of law suits not allowing them to use some of the newer voting machines.

But there is no difference because of race, that is a mere lie.

2006-07-10 23:00:36 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I saw on the news where some neighborhoods had four and five hour waits. I think it was because minorities are supposedly more likely to vote democratic, so the goverment (being the GOP had control) didn't care if they got to vote or not.

2006-07-10 23:01:55 · answer #3 · answered by teacher1628 2 · 0 0

I don't think this is so, and you offer no proof, simply your opinion. I live in a rural area, I guess, predominately white, and we had about an hour wait. Be careful where you are getting your information, check it out and know the source and in fact check a number of different sources before you make this kind of statement.

2006-07-10 23:08:55 · answer #4 · answered by rosi l 5 · 0 0

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