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2006-07-10 05:59:51 · 10 answers · asked by etido ukpong 1 in Arts & Humanities Philosophy

10 answers

hahahahahaha

2006-07-10 06:03:00 · answer #1 · answered by Who me? 4 · 1 0

Because we infer a causal connection to an event, where we don't know what the cause is.

For example: We all have seen numerous Coca-Cola advertisements. We'd also grant that the advertisement has no force over us directly. The ad says: Enjoy Coke, but we don't go out and impulsively buy it because it tells us to. And yet there is a positive correlation between the quality and frequency of advertisments... and actual sales.

For many the answer is a mystery. Or you may fall into the camp that supposes people really are that impulsive.

Yet there are robust theories that deal with this very cultural phenomenon, and to those that know about semiotics, political economy, ideology & hegemony, and critical theory the mystery dissolves.

2006-07-10 16:46:06 · answer #2 · answered by -.- 6 · 0 0

Its a mystery. 2 points.

2006-07-10 13:02:55 · answer #3 · answered by tw0cl0n3m3 6 · 0 0

It's a mysterious mystery.

2006-07-10 13:11:16 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

They are mysterious because we cannot quite figure them out.

2006-07-10 13:05:56 · answer #5 · answered by Duik, OMI. 2 · 0 0

thats why there are called mysterious because there mysterious. crazzyness!

2006-07-10 13:28:10 · answer #6 · answered by kimber g 4 · 0 0

Why are tautologies tautological?

There are no answers to these questions, because the terms of the question answer it themselves.

2006-07-10 13:59:51 · answer #7 · answered by Keither 3 · 0 0

Because you don't know the answer to them...

~SugaSw33t

2006-07-10 13:01:40 · answer #8 · answered by SugarSw33t 3 · 0 0

So you don't find out til you finish.

2006-07-10 13:03:58 · answer #9 · answered by vanamont7 7 · 0 0

its the way she moves

2006-07-10 13:06:08 · answer #10 · answered by Bonster miss Bozo 1 · 0 0

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