I'm seeking answers from a guy's perspective, but any information would be helpful.
If a man (aged 30) has experimented with other men in the past, but has thus far identified himself as heterosexual, is it likely that a growing sexual interest in other men (and a diminishing interest in women) is a phase, a sign of bisexuality, or a sign that this man is finally coming to terms with being gay?
Again, any information or advise would be greatly helpful.
2006-07-09 20:33:12 · 13 answers · asked by Anonymous in Social Science ➔ Psychology
Getting an answer to a question like this from a place like Yahoo Answers isn't the wisest choice. You really run the risk of having seriously foolish people, who have no knowledge of the topic, answering and feeding you lines of pure BS (like a few of the people answering before me).
It sounds like you are asking because you fear you see this happening. Research has shown tremendously that majority of men experiment with the same sex, and even more fantasize about it and never do it (probably because of fear of becoming gay). Typically, people become gay because they feel as though they have to identify with a life style. But the life style is created by some form of resistance (in this case, rejection by heterosexuals).
If this is someone who is close to you, the best person to talk to is him. But do not be confrontational about it; be genuine when you ask for his feelings. Otherwise, you will force him to close you off.
2006-07-09 20:48:11 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Here's a quote from a good theory on this very question, one which is damn complicated. See my source link for more.
"Males do not represent two discrete populations, heterosexual and homosexual. The world is not to be divided into sheep and goats. It is a fundamental of taxonomy that nature rarely deals with discrete categories... The living world is a continuum in each and every one of its aspects.
While emphasizing the continuity of the gradations between exclusively heterosexual and exclusively homosexual histories, it has seemed desirable to develop some sort of classification which could be based on the relative amounts of heterosexual and homosexual experience or response in each history... An individual may be assigned a position on this scale, for each period in his life.... A seven-point scale comes nearer to showing the many gradations that actually exist." (Kinsey, et al. (1948). pp. 639, 656)
2006-07-10 05:26:55 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
A man who has experimented is either gay or bisexual, regrdless of what he tells you. For a heterosexual man the idea of intimacy with another man is revolting. Don't try to fix him; it will not work.
I am not anti-gay. Indeed, I think gay men have on average much higher IQ, EQ, educational achievement, and professional success. (I don't think this is the case with bisexual men, however.)
2006-07-10 03:39:52 · answer #3 · answered by WoodyBretton 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
well i think its only a phase (and im a girl) because if he sais he is hetero, then he wants to be hetero, and nothing else. otherwise he wud say that hes bi or gay, he wudnt hide it. i mean, he probably had a phase of trying new things to get more experience in his life. So he also had some experience with guys.
still, if you're plannin a relationship with him (or have one) watch out for any guys, because you nvr know! good luck!
2006-07-10 03:37:45 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Don't think it's a phase. If he's interested in that kind of thing, he will probably continue to be interested forever. I think he's slowly saying goodbye to the ladies of the world.
2006-07-10 03:39:42 · answer #5 · answered by oscbox 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Maybe he was just experimenting and thought it wasn't such a great idea after all, I cant say I understand homosexuals, but I say to each their own as long as they dont ask me to change my ways, or start implying that there is something wrong with being straight.
2006-07-10 03:53:40 · answer #6 · answered by Clayton B 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
By the age of thirty you should all ready know what your sexsual inclination is, if this person is deminishing interest in woman, might be he is confuse about accepting he is gay specially if he is more atracted to men.
He might be gay after all .
2006-07-10 03:41:50 · answer #7 · answered by Rick 77 O 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I would imagine that it is the suppressed gay side coming to the surface. How ever, if you are OK with that then you two could still have a good relationship.
2006-07-10 07:05:26 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's an evolutionary progression geared to help his survival as a good and healthy human being.
It's quite possible he's heterodynamic, able to change.
2006-07-10 04:07:11 · answer #9 · answered by Doctor Mercado 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think it is a sign of being gay, if there is dimished attraction to females.
2006-07-10 03:36:29 · answer #10 · answered by Ranavain 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋