If the batter would hit a basehit right down the middle and the ball hit the umpire what call would they make?

Answer 1

If the ball hit the umpire, the ball is dead, the batter is awarded first base and all other players must return to their original bases, unless forced. If the ball deflects off of a fielder first, THEN hits the umpire, the ball is live and in play.

For those that continue to say "the umpire is part of the field", check your local baseball field when there isn't a game going on...I'd be surprised if you find an umpire still standing out there as "part of the field"

Answer 2

I am an umpire myself. If a batted ball hits an umpire in front of the infielders, it is a dead ball. The batter gets first base, and all other baserunners must return to the base they occupied at the time of the pitch. The runners may only move if they are forced to advance. This is the equivalent of a batter being hit with a pitch.

If a hit ball hits an umpire behind the infielders, it is live and in play.

The first thing umpires learn is that most people think they know the rules, but actually don't.

This is stated in rule 5.09 f in the 2006 Official Baseball Rules.

Answer 3

From MLB guidelines and Regs: The ball will change into useless and runners develop one base, or go back to their bases, without criminal duty to be positioned out, even as -- a straightforward ball touches a runner or an umpire on straightforward territory contained in the previous it touches an infielder alongside with the pitcher, or touches an umpire contained in the previous it has surpassed an infielder distinct than the pitcher; Rule 5.09(f) commentary: If a straightforward ball touches an umpire operating interior the infield after it has bounded previous, or over, the pitcher, that is a useless ball. If a batted ball is deflected by a fielder in straightforward territory and hits a runner or an umpire even as regardless of the truth that in flight after that is stuck by an infielder it shall no longer be a seize, regardless of the indisputable fact that the ball shall proceed to be in play. If a straightforward ball is going by potential of, or by, an infielder, and touches a runner contained in the well-loved-day decrease back of him, or touches a runner after being deflected by an infielder, the ball is in play and the umpire shall no longer declare the runner out. In making such determination the umpire ought to need to be efficient that the ball undergone, or by, the infielder and that no distinct infielder had the prospect to make a play on the ball; runners develop, if compelled

Answer 4

If a ball hits an umpire in the field of play it's a live ball (like if it hit a big rock or something) and the fielders have to play it as such. If it hits an umpire and deflects out of play, it's the crew chief's judgement to how many bases the batter and baserunners would have gotten (like in the case of fan interference).

Answer 5

This question came up 2 days ago while watching a game on tv.
If the batter hits the ball and it then hits the umpire,and he is part of the field,the batter is out.No one gets to take a base.

Answer 6

It depends on where the umpire is. If he's in front of the fielders as in when there is a runner on first, the ball is dead. It's a single and all baserunners advance one base if forced.
However, if the umpire is behind the fielder as in when first base is unoccupied the ball is live.

Answer 7

The umpire is in the field of play
The fielder would have to play the ball off him.

Answer 8

The umpire is always in play. Just like fixtures on the roof.

Answer 9

Basehit - the ump is part of the "field"

Answer 10

You ask an interesting question and not one that warrants a "fair ball" duh. If the ball hits the umpire, it is a dead ball and one base is awarded to all base runners.