Is it possible for a father to forfeit his rights to extended summer visitaion with his child by not exercising that right at the beginning of the alloted time (as outlined in the divorce decree). For example, if the father is allowed (by provision in the decree) the entire month of June with his child and he does not make any attempt to pick up the child or notify of his intent to pick up the child until June 15th - has he forfeited those rights? or has he just reduced the time he will have (i.e. he can't have a whole month from the day he picks up his child but he can have the remainder of the time allotted - 15 days)?
2006-07-09 14:11:39 · 1 answers · asked by michaeldagnan 1 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
I believe he's just reduced the amount of time he can spend with his child. Good question, because my decree says nothing about forfeiture, so I'm just assuming.
Try asking your question on findlaw.
2006-07-09 14:46:42 · answer #1 · answered by kathy059 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋