IE
I have 50 dollars in my pocket and I do not divide it amongst my friends or my self I still have 50 dollars in my pocket.(not impossible I just did not divide it ).
We assume the other end of the equation to always be correct-
If I have fifty dollars in my pocket and multiply it by 0, I get 0 in math? Why not 50 dollars?
please laymen terms and logical .
2006-07-09 11:16:15 · 8 answers · asked by Jeff R 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
So what's wrong with your own explanation? You're on the right track. My suggestion, since your mind seems to be working well, think further about what "0" is, relevant to multiplying by 0. It's a bit different than whether you divide by 0. Think of 0 in multiplication like a black hole in the stellar space. What does a black hole in space do? That's what a 0 does in multiplication. Zero is not just a number, it's a concept, in arithmetic / math as well as in philosophy as well as in outer space. You're mind is working well, in the right direction. Just carry your thought about "0" in multiplication just a bit further. You'll be proud you did! God Bless you.
2006-07-09 11:25:10 · answer #1 · answered by ? 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hi:
The reason you can divide by zero is this
what is division?
it one of two answers
repeated subtraction or multiplication in reverse
Okay! here how to think it :
divide 9/ 3 = 3 because 3 *3 = 9
or 9-3 =6 than subtract 6 again by three ( 6-3= 3) than subtract 3 by three again ( 3-3=0) by counting the number of subtractions which is 3 we find that 3*3= 9 or 3+3+3 = 9 So that 9/3 is proven to equal 3. Do the math youself
Okay now to try to divided by 0? Do the division for yourself
10/0 =?
10-0= 10 try again 10 -0 =10 you never can bring 10 (in this case) down to value other than 10 no matter how time you subtracting it by zero . So the number of subtraction will become infinite
and the number of solution is infinte when multiplying by zero because any number time zero equal zero so that dividing by zero has a infinite number of soultion thus dividing by zero is a undefine operation there one expection to this when you divide 0 by 0 it equals 1. Do the math yourself
also in your statement you did divide your money for yourself that is. it one. because yourself as a value of one and anything multiplied or divided by itself is itself. Think about
Good luck on think about that one.
Hope this answers your question .
2006-07-11 18:11:39 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
A suggestion: I think you should not mix mathematics, with real life!
In the "pure" math, you can do the next operation: 50x0=0 (due to the
fact that the "x" operator and the lot of the Natural numbers are forming
an Abellian Ring.)
In the real life, this kind of operation is impossible--simply because...
there are no "Zero Dollars" banknotes!
Try to define "0 USD", before making the multiplication!
You can multiply ONLY Dollars, with Dollars; and NOT Dollars with...
something undefined!
2006-07-09 11:50:05 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
In mathematics, the reason you can't divide by 0 is because the answer is always Infinity. What you are talking about is sharing of the $50. Hopefully, the have at least "1" friend.
2006-07-09 11:23:37 · answer #4 · answered by Navigator 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no.. if you kept your money in your pocket then that would be dividing by ONE. because you arent divinding the money amongst yourself. you are ONE person, are you not?
the problem with diving by zero is..
lets assume a/b=c. then what would mean b x c =a, yes? because b and c are factors of a. you divide my b, you get c. so b times c is a.
BUT if you divide by ZERO,
a/0=c. then c x 0 could not possible equal a (that is of course, assuming a is not 0) because anything times 0 is 0. :)
2006-07-09 11:23:44 · answer #5 · answered by shugo 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
When dividing, you can always prove your answer,i.e.15 divided by 3 =5,3x5=15.
When you divide by 0, such as21 divided by 0, you can't prove your answer , you won't get 21 back .21x0=0
.
Math is logical.Hope it helps.
2006-07-09 11:30:07 · answer #6 · answered by hollyltstarfleet 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you multiply by 1 it leaves you 50. Thats like one set of fifty, if you multiply by two it gives you 2 sets of fifty. Same applies to 0 it leaves you 0 sets of fifty. That is just one wat to look at it. If you multiply 50 by .5 it leaves 25. if you mutiply by -2 you are negative 2 sets of fifty. This was typed quickly, hope you follow.
2006-07-09 11:29:03 · answer #7 · answered by Timothy S 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the properties of the number zero is what defines it,
this is also the same for the number unlimited
2006-07-09 11:21:51 · answer #8 · answered by kevin h 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋