Not really. In a criminal trial, guilt must be proven beyond a reasonable doubt, but for a civil trial, guilt only needs to be supported by a preponderance of evidence, which is much easier to prove.
2006-07-09 10:29:28
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answer #1
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answered by zmm 2
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No. There has been many people found not guilty in a criminal trial and than turn around and found guilty in a civil trial. Personally I feel this is double jeopardy because they are being tried for the same crime twice. Or at least the decision in the criminal trial should affect the civil
2006-07-09 10:28:14
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answer #2
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answered by butterflykisses427 5
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Besides the differences in burden of proof - "beyond a reasonable doubt" for criminal conviction and "preponderance of the evidence" for civil, the plaintiffs are not the same.
In a criminal trial the state is the plaintiff, you are not. In a civil trial, you could be the plaintiff, and the state has nothing to do with it.
Note that if someone is found guilty in a criminal trial, it pretty much makes a civil trial a slam-dunk.
2006-07-09 12:18:28
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answer #3
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answered by Steve Wood 3
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Not necessarily.
It's a different standard of proof. In a criminal trial, it's beyond a reasonable doubt (a pretty high standard) in a civil trial it's a preponderance of the evidence, or it looks more likely than unlikely ( a much lower standard)
That's why OJ got hammered in the civil wrongful death trial for $33 million after being acquited of murder in the criminal trial.
2006-07-09 10:29:38
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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It would have no impact whatsoever. The identities of the parties is different as is the burden of proof. You can be found not guilty in a criminal proceeding and yet held liable in a civil action.
2006-07-09 10:57:51
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answer #5
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answered by Carl 7
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no
look at OJ
found innnocent of double homicide crimnially
but found guilty finacially for the murders
2006-07-09 12:16:52
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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no.it is a totally diferant case.
2006-07-09 10:32:20
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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