2006-07-09 08:44:55 · 11 answers · asked by Lonnie T 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
The KEY to handling this problem is to make these 2 fractions equivalent, meaning convert them to a common denominator. Why? Because right now you have 1 that's divided into 8ths and another that's divided into 10ths. So you're looking at apples and oranges.
The quickiest way to find a common denominator is to multiply the current denominators together (8 x 10) giving you 80. Now you'd need to convert each of these fractions into 80ths.
3/8 would become 30/80 and 4/10 would become 32/80. 32/80 is bigger than 30/80, so 4/10 would be the longer of the two.
2006-07-10 14:55:40 · answer #1 · answered by msoexpert 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
4/10
2006-07-09 09:12:17 · answer #2 · answered by thedude2005 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
4/10
2006-07-09 08:48:43 · answer #3 · answered by elguapo_marco_2008@sbcglobal.net 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
4/10
2006-07-09 08:48:08 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
4/10 of a mile
2006-07-09 08:47:56 · answer #5 · answered by miketorse 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
4/10 is longer. 3/8 is equal to 15/40 and 4/10 is equal to 16/40.
2006-07-09 08:48:48 · answer #6 · answered by treebark 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
3/8 = .375
4/10 = .400
Obviously 4/10 is 25/1000 longer
2006-07-09 08:51:52 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
4/10
4/10=16/40
3/8=15/40
2006-07-09 08:50:09 · answer #8 · answered by mom2all 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
4/10 = 0.40
3/8 = 0.375
Since 0.40 > 0.375, you know that 4/10 mile is greater.
2006-07-09 09:16:29 · answer #9 · answered by TrueBlueWolverine 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
3/8=.375
4/10=.40
(4/10)>(3/8)
2006-07-09 08:52:33 · answer #10 · answered by Nicholi 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋