Assuming f'(x) is the derivative function this is a classic case for the appliction of the chain rule dy/dx = dy/du (du/dx)
u = 1 + ln(x)
dy/du = 2 u ..... since the power rule is f'(x)^n = (n+1) x ^(n-1) right?
then f'(x) = 2 u (1+ lnx)'
du/dx= (1+ln(x))' = 0 + 1/x right?
f'(x) = dy/dx = 2( 1 + ln(x)) (1/x) .... substituting x here for u
f'(x) = (2/x) (ln(x)+1)
2006-07-09 08:19:47
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answer #1
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answered by rhino9joe 5
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No not right .
f'(x) = 2*(1+ln x) * (1+ln x)'
(1+ln x )' = 0 + 1/x
thus
f(x)' = 2*x*(1+ln x)
2006-07-09 12:30:26
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answer #2
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answered by gjmb1960 7
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No, but you're doing parts of it right. Use the chain rule:
(f(g(x)))' = f'(g(x))(g'(x))
So, x^2 is f, and 1+ln(x) is g.
f' = 2x
g'= 1/x
Substitute g for x in f', and write the solution:
(f(g(x)))' = 2(1+ln(x))*(1/x), which is your derivative.
2006-07-09 12:31:18
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answer #3
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answered by anonymous 7
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f(x) = (1 + ln x)^2
f '(x) = 2(1 + ln x) * (0 + 1/x)
f '(x) = 2(1 + ln x)/x
2006-07-09 13:11:15
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answer #4
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answered by Thermo 6
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Yours is wrong, tornado is right and
anonymous is right with theory also.
2006-07-09 12:50:41
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answer #5
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answered by albert 5
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f'(X)=2 (1+lnX) (1/X)
your's is wrong
2006-07-09 12:28:16
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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Ï
2006-07-09 12:27:39
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answer #7
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answered by Canyonne 2
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