Sort of. That person’s exact genetic make up will obviously not get passed on. His/her relatives may pass some of that unique genetic material on. Unless the person is a freaking Einstein-Newton Type Genius, I wouldn’t worry about it. We all share an amazing amount of the same genetic material. We are all related about 5000 years ago to the same handful of people. Also remember, a child’s DNA is only 50% from one parent. And 100% of its RNA is from the mother alone.
2006-07-08 19:03:04
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answer #1
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answered by Polymath72 2
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No. It is the end of that person's family line, but it isn't genetic death. His genes are also carried by his brothers & sisters (each has a random half) and by his cousins (each has a random eighth).
Take a look at Cavalli-Sforza's "History and Geography of Human Genes" and ignore the anti-racist "squid ink" (obligatory stuff a researcher in human science must include to pass leftist censorship) in the first chapter. You'll note that the FST genetic distance among the European ethnicities is very small. That means that the genes of each White person is replicated, in large percentage if in low density, throughout his race.
It's mitochondrial DNA, not RNA, that's inherited from the mother alone - the mitochondria of the cells have a separate kind of DNA, not the same as what's in the cell nucleus.
Some anthropologists think that all modern humans descend from a single African tribe that lived about 130,000 years ago because that is where the so-called Mitochondrial Eve is believed to have lived. Mitochondrial Eve is the source for all the mitochondrial DNA in the cells of every person alive today.
On the other hand, those anthropologists may be making too much of their Mitochondrial Eve. All it tells you is where your mother's mother's mother's mother's (repeat 5000 times) mother lived. It doesn't say anything about where any of your other ancestors, living at the same time as Mitochondrial Eve, lived. I'm not sure how they prove that there was any sort of "bottleneck" in the human population. The mtDNA Eve theory certainly does not offer such proof.
There's also a pre-historical person known to science as Y-chromosome Adam, the male equivalent to mtDNA Eve. He lived, also in Africa (or so they say), only 75,000 years ago. Another "bottleneck" perhaps? Or is it simply that we think we've traced the location of our pure matrilineal ancestress of 130,000 years B.P. and our pure patrilineal ancestor of 75,000 years B.P. but have no idea where their human contemporaries were?
2006-07-09 02:09:04
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answer #2
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answered by David S 5
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It depends on what perspective you are looking from. Most of the genes that he/she has and for many sections of his genome there will be an exact duplicate somewhere in the human population (more likely in his direct relatives genomes). On the other hand, some parts of the person's genome oand some interactions between parts of the genome (through proteins and RNA) may be lost and hence duffer genetic death.
Clearly if someone has children the amount that they die genetically will be reduced, but the larger concern is that their genetic representation in the next generation will be smaller.
2006-07-09 09:44:14
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answer #3
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answered by champben2002 1
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A gene can be defined as a region of DNA that controls a hereditary characteristic. It usually corresponds to a sequence used in the production of a specific protein or RNA.
A gene carries biological information in a form that must be copied and transmitted from each cell to all its progeny.
The estimate for the number of genes in humans is thought to have between 30,000 and 40,000 genes.
In humans, a cell nucleus contains 46 individual chromosomes or 23 pairs of chromosomes (chromosomes come in pairs, remember? 23 X 2 = 46). Half of these chromosomes come from one parent and half come from the other parent.
So when one dies without leaving an offspring, it means that genes cannot be passed to next progeny on his/her line.
2006-07-09 15:56:13
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answer #4
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answered by mytanzania 1
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no,its not a genetic death
2006-07-09 02:03:45
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answer #5
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answered by dumplingmuffin 7
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only if he or she has no relatives and they fail to reproduce
2006-07-09 05:56:25
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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no. dont forget his/her relatives. their genes is identical with him/her.
2006-07-09 05:07:58
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answer #7
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answered by peyman r 2
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No
2006-07-14 04:46:10
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answer #8
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answered by Mehbooba 4
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