Of course not. ALL polynomial functions have a y-intercept.
All polynomial functions are of the form
f(x) = a_n*x^n + a_(n-1)*x^(n-1) + ... + a_1*x + a_0
where, and here's the important one, n > 0 and belongs to NATURALS. Not *integers*. So 1/x is NOT polynomial, shame on you Nick :)
Since all the exponents are natural, there is no reason why f(0) would not exist. It would -- it is exactly equal to a_0. So every polynomial function does have exactly one y-intercept, and it is equal to the constant term. QED.
2006-07-08 15:29:42
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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No, it is not possible if the function is a polynomial. Make sure you know that the function is a polynomial before you make that judgement, though. A good definition of "polynomial" is here:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Polynomial
Another note: It is possible for a polynomial to have no x-intercept if and only if the degree of the polynomial is even or zero (constant function). Again, make sure it is a polynomial before you make that judgement.
Good luck!
Edit: OK, I see one restriction that I should have established in my answer: The polynomials I was talking about were single-variable functions in terms of an independent variable x that are graphed in the conventional manner with y being the dependent variable. If the polynomial describes any other type of function (with y independent and x dependent, for example) or a function with dimension > 2, then the explanation above does not hold. I do not think that is what you thought of in asking the question, however, so just ignore the rest of it my answer unless you can understand it.
2006-07-08 15:09:12
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answer #2
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answered by anonymous 7
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No, every polynomial function (in the variable x) will have exactly one y-intercept. (You just replace x with zero to find it.) The domain of a polynomial is all real numbers. Thus, zero is in the domain, so you will always be able to replace x with 0 to find the y-intercept.
It is possible to not have an x-intercept.
P(x) = x^2 + 1 does not have an x-intercept.
Note: x = 5 (or any other number) is not a polynomial function.
Also, note that y = 1/x is not a polynomial. Exponential functions are not polynomials (they are exponential functions) and square root equations are also not polynomials.
2006-07-08 14:59:44
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answer #3
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answered by MsMath 7
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The graph of a polynomial function intercepts the y-axis always.
Then always x=0.
2006-07-08 18:34:17
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answer #4
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answered by Thermo 6
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ok...is it possible yes...now, this depends what you want to call a polynomial...i claim that x=5 is a monomial...not a polynomial, and this graph would not intersect the y-axis, its a vertical line at x=5
now, your question is if a multiple termed function ould be created so that it doesnt cross the y-axis...and the answer is yes...heres why
for there to be no y-intercept then there can be a y value when x = 0
this would occur anytime you have an x in the denominator (the x could be to any power
so an example would be : y= (52x)/x^2 +5x
2006-07-08 15:29:56
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answer #5
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answered by matttlocke 4
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Of course not. ALL polynomial functions have a y-intercept.
All polynomial functions are of the form
f(x) = a_n*x^n + a_(n-1)*x^(n-1) + ... + a_1*x + a_0
where, and here's the important one, n > 0 and belongs to NATURALS. Not *integers*. So 1/x is NOT polynomial, shame on you Nick :)
Since all the exponents are natural, there is no reason why f(0) would not exist. It would -- it is exactly equal to a_0. So every polynomial function does have exactly one y-intercept, and it is equal to the constant term. QED.
2006-07-08 17:57:21
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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All polynomials have y intercepts. don't let y= 1/x^2 fool you either. Equations simplified with x's to the negative powers are not polynomials.
2006-07-08 17:25:37
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answer #7
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answered by thunderbomb90 3
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no
Take any polynomial function
Ax^n +Bx^(n-1) +... Cx + D
The y-intercept(the line x=0) will be D
Also a polynomial function will also intercept every vertical line
NOTE- polynomial function are when n= 0,1,2,3,...
y =x^(1/2)
y =x^(-1) are not polynomial functions
2006-07-08 14:58:56
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answer #8
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answered by PC_Load_Letter 4
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Try y = 1/x. There is no x intercept nor y intercept. Also, x + 0y = 5 is not a function, vertical line test.
2006-07-08 14:58:13
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answer #9
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answered by Nick 2
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yes it can..but not in every case.
i believe y=mx + c (the general slope-intercept equation of a line) is a polynomial, ,which can also be expressed as x/a + y/b = c; it does have a y-intercept = b.
2006-07-08 15:28:55
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answer #10
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answered by Srikanth 2
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