Even if you take it as a given that in those days, "virgin" didn't necessarily mean you never slept with a man, the implication here is "Mary didn't do it, ever."
2006-07-08 13:18:25 · 13 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Mythology & Folklore
No, that is NOT the implication. The Immaculate Conception has nothing to do with the conception of Jesus. It talks about Mary's conception. The Franciscan Monks in about the 13th Century came up with the idea that if Jesus, the Christ was born of this woman, she must have been without sin as well because Jesus, himself, was without sin. As many of these customs, it was thought to be wrong by many when it was first thought. It wasn't said to be absolutely true until the late 19th Century, but it has nothing to do with the "virgin birth" of Jesus.
2006-07-08 13:24:53 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
Immaculate conception has nothing to do with sex. In reference to Mary,it tells us of how from the moment of her conception,(not when she conceived),she was without sin.God did this for her so that she would be a fitting vessel for His son.
2006-07-08 20:37:46 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
You're whole idea doesn't fit in with they way they thought back then -- Mary's whole family and the Jewish culture as a whole thought it was pretty strange NOT to be married and have children. And "immaculate conception" does not mean that Mary was a virgin, it means that Mary herself was born without sin. (And no, it doesn't mean her parents didnt do it either - yikes... what Cathechism class did you go to?)
2006-07-08 20:27:53 · answer #3 · answered by dhamca 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Probably.
Do you mean to tell me that Joseph would have stayed with Mary if she hadn't put out EVER? Come on.... :)
Jesus had siblings even if he had been an immaculate conception.
2006-07-08 20:23:02 · answer #4 · answered by Jessie P 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
FYI..."immaculate conception" does not refer to Jesus's conception. It refers to Mary's being conceived without original sin. It has nothing to do with sexual intercourse.
2006-07-08 21:35:10 · answer #5 · answered by Fully armed in the battle of wits 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
virgin back then meant a prominent woman of high status. Yes. The king that had that book translated was catholic(no personal offense to catholics) but I think the catholic church used many translations inside the bible to manipulate and control the people. If you were not catholic back then you were a Gypsy or a witch, those people were burned at the stake or pushed out of communities.
2006-07-09 05:22:25 · answer #6 · answered by singitoutloudandclear 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Jesus was/is perfect. Therefore, His Mother had to be perfect. One cannot be perfect unless pure in body, soul, and deeds. And a woman can most certainly NOT be pure if she has been "deflowered" so to speak. After the birth of Jesus it didn't matter anymore. The perfect Child is here and everybody can get back to the business of being lowly humans.
2006-07-08 20:38:57 · answer #7 · answered by dudezoid 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not that it really has anything to do with anything, but how exactly was Mary conceived without sin? I've never been able to find anyone who could answer that.
2006-07-08 22:40:26 · answer #8 · answered by Isis-sama 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, the conception of Jesus Christ is what is referred to as immaculate because God placed Him in her womb.
2006-07-08 20:25:42 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
without the immaculate conception god would have had to bang mary.
2006-07-09 00:09:57 · answer #10 · answered by marduk D 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋