2006-07-08 11:15:51 · 16 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
I mean is it a predictive statement that, in principle, could be falsified by an experiment or is it an unfalsifiable definition of force, mass, whatever...?
2006-07-08 12:15:06 · update #1
it's principle.
2006-07-08 11:17:08 · answer #1 · answered by junglee 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's a mathematical model which predicts the results of experiments with a high degree of accuracy. It is considered a law of physics because of this. It was discovered by Isaac Newton over 400 years ago. It means that if you take an object of mass m, and apply a force F to it, it will accelerate at the rate F/m.
2006-07-08 11:29:24 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
For over 2 000 years, Aristotle's "Law of Motion" was accepted as truth. Essentially, Aristotle said that the VELOCITY of a body depends on the size of the force acting on it. And he had a very convincing argument for this.
Then came Isaac Newton, with his three laws of motion, the second of which says that the ACCELERATION of a body is directly proportional to the resultant force acting on it (and inversely proportional to the mass of the body), i.e. a = F/m. In its initial form, therefore, it was a principle.
If the formula is rearranged to make F the subject of the formula, then one needs to remember that F represents RESULTANT FORCE. As such, it cannot be a definition of force.
2006-07-08 13:23:51 · answer #3 · answered by flandargo 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is an equation meaning force equals to mass times acceleration. It is a definition. It is the definition of the standard unit of force.
2006-07-08 11:19:04 · answer #4 · answered by Nathan W 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
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2016-12-14 05:41:42 · answer #5 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's Newton's Second Law, So It Is a Law,
But it is commonly used to define Force, so It Could be a definition as well.
2006-07-08 11:19:21 · answer #6 · answered by yauwforab 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
its more of a principle, but keep in mind when Newton made this law he "defined" it as F = dp/dt where p is momentum (mass*velocity). We believe this is a universal law, as far as I know, but I would not be suprised to see a few exceptions in some higher physics topic- in that case, it is not a principle, but a law that hold in certain cases.
2006-07-09 08:10:50 · answer #7 · answered by Chris R 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
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2006-07-08 11:18:19 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
it is a LAW of physics. it is, mathematically speaking, an equation. acceleration of a body must be equal to the quotient of the force applied divided by the mass of the body.
2006-07-08 11:21:32 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Force equals mass times acceleration...... come on newton's second law, come on, It is a definiton of Force.
2006-07-08 11:19:42 · answer #10 · answered by musicman45666 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Try this one:
Net Force = m*a = Sum of forces acting on an object.
2006-07-08 11:24:45 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋