a) I have no place to stay.
b) I dont have a place to stay
more examples:
a) I dont have a car
b) I have no car
a) I have no idea of what happened
b) I dont have an idea of what happened
a) I have no girlfriend
b) I dont have a girlfriend.
a) I have no problem with that
b) I dont have a problem with that
2006-07-08 11:10:25 · 5 answers · asked by John 1 in Education & Reference ➔ Homework Help
Well.... if you ask me....... the main difference in all the examples you provided must have something to do with the fact that there is no such word as "dont." Unless, of course, you are Ricky Ricardo.
Sorry..... my smart aleck alter ego is on the loose again..........
2006-07-08 18:58:24 · answer #1 · answered by Katie My Katie 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Hmmm. That's a pretty good question. I think all of them are synonymous, so there is no differnce. The use of the indefinite article "a" generalize the noun (as opposed to the definite article which specifies a particular case) Stylistically, the sentences without the article are more casual and blunt. But they all communicate the same idea grammatically.
2006-07-08 18:17:14 · answer #2 · answered by Josh 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Generally, the difference is between more formal English and more colloquial English. There is no particular grammatical problem with the "don't have" formualtion, but it is seen as more relaxed; it tends to be used much more in everyday speech.
2006-07-08 18:17:21 · answer #3 · answered by P. M 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It depends on the type of sentence fragment and what part of the sentence fragment you are using them in.
2006-07-08 18:17:11 · answer #4 · answered by ladysweetness87 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
have no
do not (don't)
have = positive no = negative
do = positive not = negative
There is no difference
2006-07-08 18:21:07 · answer #5 · answered by bookgirl 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋