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Is it possible for 'nothing' to exist alongside 'something'? How can something be created out of nothing. Nothing implying the total absence of anything.

2006-07-08 07:48:42 · 17 answers · asked by Jakestein 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

17 answers

That we will never know !!!

2006-07-08 07:51:28 · answer #1 · answered by Transgénico 7 · 1 0

There is actually no such thing as nothing (except as an abstract) because that implies a perfect vacuum or utter absence of any molecules at all which is impossible. The most basic rule of Physics is that it is impossible for anything to come into existence or cease to exist it can only change*.

*Note that this shows that everything that has ever or will ever exist is around now in some form thus irrefutably, scientifically proving Buddah was absolutly right about rencarnation.

I just know this because I am an (very) amateur connections between Eastern philosophy and science enthusiast but I'm sure someone will make the point more clearly than me!

2006-07-08 08:05:15 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

According to the Bible it can:

In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth.

And the earth was without form, and void; and darkness was upon the face of the deep. And the Spirit of God moved upon the face of the waters.

We must assume that nothing existed prior to the creation given these verses. However as a another poster stated "we will never know", at least, not while on this Earth.

I believe that after we die everything will be revealed to us. That will be one of those moments that you slap your forehead and say "I knew that was true".

2006-07-08 07:57:17 · answer #3 · answered by rhutson 4 · 0 0

Both Nothing and Something are created.There would be no Nothing if there is no Something and vice versa.The two really exist alongside each other since the Big Bang.

2006-07-08 07:57:08 · answer #4 · answered by OicedvenomO 2 · 0 0

A vacuum is a volume of space that is substansively empty of matter, so that gaseous pressure is much less than standard atmospheric pressure. The root of the word vacuum is the Latin adjective vacuus which means "empty," but space can never be perfectly empty. A perfect vacuum, known as "free space", with a gaseous pressure of absolute zero is a philosophical concept with no physical reality, not least because quantum theory predicts that no volume of space is perfectly empty in this way. Physicists often use the term "vacuum" slightly differently. They discuss ideal test results that would occur in a perfect vacuum, which they simply call "vacuum" in this context, and use the term partial vacuum to refer to the imperfect vacua realized in practice.

No, it's impossible

2006-07-08 08:28:29 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Ah well. Nothing comes into existance and becomes something if we attempt to observe it (The observer is part of the system)

However if we postulate a nothingness it will exist because needing nothing to create nothing we have created it. Have a nice head ache. you gave me one

2006-07-08 08:00:43 · answer #6 · answered by robert m 2 · 0 0

#1
Nothing exists, means, It is not the case that something exists.

(Nothing exists) <-> ~(Something exists)
Something exists <-> ~(Nothing exists)

Something exists, means, there is an x such that: x exists.
Something exists, means, Ex(x exists). (ExE!x)

x exists, is defined, there is some y such that: x is equal to y.
E!x =df Ey(x=y).

Something exists, means, Ex[Ey(x=y)].

Nothing exists, means, ~Ex[Ey(x=y)].

Because, (nothing exists) <-> ~(something exists).


But, ExEy(x=y) is a theorem.

1. Ax[x=x] and 2. AxAy[x=y -> (Fx <-> Fy)] are the axioms of identity theory, within first order predicate logic.


ExEy(x=y)

Proof:

1. Ax(x=x) -> a=a
2. a=a -> Ey(a=y).
3. Ey(a=y) -> Ex[Ey(x=y)].
4. Ax(x=x) -> ExEy(x=y).
5. ExEy(x=y).
By axiom 1, Ax(x=x).

If we use the second order Leibnitz-Russell definition of identity,
x=y =df AF(Fx <-> Fy), then we can prove that Ax(x=x) is a theorem.

x=x means AF(Fx <-> Fx), which is clearly tautologous for all x.


Therefore ~ExEy(x=y) is a contradiction.

i.e. Nothing exists is a contradiction.

~(Nothing exists), is a theorem of classical logic.

2006-07-08 08:19:16 · answer #7 · answered by George_Orwin_Jr 2 · 1 0

God is consistantly reffered to in the masculin.so even tho its trendy ,its inaccurate. :) no offense intended. how old? since he gives a direct implication of infinite age,no beginning and no end exsists. odd for us because an infinite number cant be pinned down concetely in our heads, this was in the statement "I am",directly implying infinite exsistance.

2006-07-08 08:00:47 · answer #8 · answered by robertkey60 1 · 0 0

Matter and energy can not be created or destroyed. E=MCsquared. The universe always was and always will be. The universe and the laws that govern the universe are God.

2006-07-08 07:58:33 · answer #9 · answered by Dennis Fargo 5 · 0 0

Where does space end?

When did time begin?

How old is God?

Does she like me?


These are all questions we will never have the answer to, but should keep asking anyways.

2006-07-08 07:54:16 · answer #10 · answered by C P R 3 · 0 0

Antimatter?

2006-07-08 07:54:15 · answer #11 · answered by creative 3 · 0 0

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