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Do you think someone without a genetic predisposition can become so stressed that they react and deal with the stress with schizophrenic psychosis that will soon go into remission? Or do you think the genetic predisposition must be there. I think that in some cases the brain is in overdrive with stress and emotions and reacts by creating the psychosis, hence you have acute schizophrenia episode.

2006-07-08 07:27:49 · 15 answers · asked by marydazetwentyone 3 in Social Science Psychology

JUST TO AVOID CONFUSION---i am not a schizophrenic myself, i am just premed eventually going to specialize in the disease if possible. kind of my passion, tha abnormal psychology. also have a family member with the disease, so that fuels my passion even more

2006-07-08 10:41:01 · update #1

15 answers

I think there has to be a genetic predisposition because many people who are subjected to severe or prolonged stressors do not develop psychotic symptoms. Then on the other side of the coin people who are not under major stress go on to develop schizophrenic or major mood disorders. Hereditary factors seem to play a major part in classic bipolar disorder but not so much in schizophrenia. Schizophrenia though seems to be quite a heterogeneous category. For instance, the paranoid and disorganized types differ considerably in symptoms, onset, prognosis and treatment yet are both diagnosed under the umbrella of "Schizophrenia". I think it's logical that stress can result in milder symptoms like insomnia, lowered mood, anxiety, irritability, etc. whereas severe symptoms such as delusion, hallucinations, incoherence in thought and speech and grossly bizarre behavior are more likely due to biological brain dysfunction. There is a small percentage of people who are very susceptible to stress and develop "schizophreniform" or "brief reactive" psychoses.

2006-07-08 23:28:36 · answer #1 · answered by DawnDavenport 7 · 2 0

I'm not sure how one would rule out absolutely a genetic predisposition or prove it to be for that matter. For a true study you'd need a list of objective symptoms evaluated at different times during and after the episode and before for a baseline if at all possible. A person without genetic predisposition having a major psychological event could be treated with meds and therapy not knowing the presence or absense known genetic cause. Assuming the symptoms demonstrated by your someone without genetic markers are what you know they are for a major acute episode and that they are a given in the field, and that they match symptoms of a person with genetic possibilities and the episodes of acute psychosis match for the most part; and the person without genetic material recovers and the other person does not you MAY then have a person to put on your list to answer your question. One related comment is about the Autism Spectrum and where schizophrenia sits on there along with the other Autism-related diseases -- in other words did your person with no genetic predisposition for schizophrenia as far as you know have an event which actually results from the Autism genes?

Quite a good question. I don't think I gave you an answer!

2006-07-08 08:14:08 · answer #2 · answered by firstyearbabyboomer 4 · 0 0

It's possible to have episodes with no symptoms before and after. However, if one was to keep having "episodes" of psychosis there is a pattern and they are most likely suffering from a form of schizophrenia. (There are many types ranging from simple to acute)
If the person is using drugs, they can also cause these types of episodes. Which can be FAR more severe with an abrupt end.
And keep in mind that with a genetic predisposition to schizophrenia you mat not develop symptoms until AFTER you are 18.

2006-07-08 07:41:39 · answer #3 · answered by lildarlinkristisue 3 · 0 0

My parent suffers from schizophrenia. At 21 I suffered from my first psychotic episode. I have a genetic predisposition because when I was conceived my parent was unwell. This explains why my sibling is ok and can tolerate a stressful career whilst Im on medication at home and anxious most of the time. I get stressed fairly easily. I have an anxious temperament. It started with OCD as a child. I wish I was mentally fit. Then I could follow my dreams. But currently on hold.

2015-04-04 00:55:20 · answer #4 · answered by Kim 3 · 0 0

I find schizophrenia extremely interesting. The thing about schizophrenia is that doctors don't know what really causes.

Everything is all about "imbalances in brain chemistry" now a days.

Though, I recall reading a paper on adrenaline break down products (Adrenochrome in particular) being in higher levels than normal in some schizophrenics.

I don't think that stress will trigger schizophrenia alone. Although I have no doubt that it could exacerbate it.

There are also varying degrees and types of schizophrenia. Let us not forget that "hallucinating" is natural. As in dreams, and the pre-sleep hallucinations, also known as hypnagogic hallucinations.

This is all a reminder that we do not see the world as it is, but in a way that our brains can comprehend.

2006-07-08 21:58:58 · answer #5 · answered by cat_Rett_98 4 · 0 0

there is other related illness that are not schizophrenia that can cause some hallucination. Being under a lot of stress, being bi polar. some people have no genetic predisposition at all and have schizophrenia. Also allergic reactions can cause some hallucination if it is severe enough. I would consult a doctor for more answers

2006-07-08 07:35:23 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I tend to think that the genetic predisposition must be there. Then people will become schizophrenic if events in their life cause them to be that way.

2006-07-08 07:31:49 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

First of all, I love that song. =)

Secondly, I do think someone who is not genetically predisposed to mental illness could be driven to experience a schizophrenic episode or reacion. That isn't so hard to explain being that schizphrenia does deal with how an individual perceives reality. I definitely believe someone could be pushed that far outside of the frame of reality...

2006-07-08 07:38:33 · answer #8 · answered by Methlehem 5 · 0 0

I don't think they totally understand causes for it yet, they only have treatments such as medication and sometimes the medications work and sometimes they don't, depending on the person and situation I guess. Some don't have genetic histories of it and come down with it anyway. It's usually diagnosed with things like hearing voices and paranoia, which can be stress induced I suppose.

2006-07-08 07:35:58 · answer #9 · answered by too_live_forever 3 · 1 0

Everyone here thinks is just peachy! Except for Ted and Dana, they're so jealous and self-centered they think they're the only ones here....ughhhhhhhhhhh
SHUT UP KENNY...NO ONE WANTS TO HEAR YOU BLABBLER!

2006-07-08 07:34:23 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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