What happened to "if I were a rich man". Why did it become "if I was a rich man"?
2006-07-08 05:10:55 · 3 answers · asked by grapeshenry 4 in Education & Reference ➔ Primary & Secondary Education
Because most of the time, you use "I was", instead of "I were", so it has become common to use it all of the time, even if it is incorrect.
It is becoming more common to trade what SOUNDS right for what is grammatically correct. For example, most people (myself included) would say "with Fred and I" when, grammatically, it should be "with Fred and me", because it SOUNDS correct.
English is a spoken language (unlike, say, Latin), so the rules and usage evolve with the times.
2006-07-08 05:21:42 · answer #1 · answered by homeschoolmom 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Not sure where you heard that. My version of "Fiddler On the Roof" still has "If I Were A Rich Man." I think with the increasing emphasis on every-day language, the subjunctive is not reinforced much except maybe for a year or two in high school English. If you learn a foreign language, however, like Spanish, etc., you are going to learn subjunctive.
2006-07-08 12:35:48 · answer #2 · answered by Cookie777 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I blame it on the public's dependence on M&M's.
2006-07-08 12:14:22 · answer #3 · answered by mightyskid 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋